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EMT Exam Prep Guide: 100 Practice Questions with Answers
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Section 1: Scene Size-Up & Safety (Questions 1–15)
Q1. You arrive at a motor-vehicle collision and notice leaking fuel near the vehicle. What
should you do FIRST?
A. Begin triage immediately
B. Enter the vehicle and assess the driver
C. Park uphill and establish a safe staging area
D. Disconnect the vehicle battery
Answer: C
Rationale: Scene safety takes priority. Fuel leakage creates a significant fire and explosion
hazard, so the EMT should remain at a safe location until the scene is secured .
Q2. A 34-year-old male is found unresponsive in a garage with a running generator. Which
hazard should the EMT suspect FIRST?
A. Carbon monoxide poisoning
B. Hydrogen sulfide exposure
C. Methamphetamine lab
D. Natural gas leak
Answer: A
Rationale: A running generator in an enclosed space produces carbon monoxide (CO), a
colorless, odorless gas that causes hypoxia by binding to hemoglobin with an affinity
approximately 250 times that of oxygen .
Q3. During scene size-up at a residential structure fire, the incident commander reports that
the fire is contained and the structure is safe for entry. Which zone would the EMT expect to
operate in during patient care?
A. Hot zone
B. Warm zone
C. Cold zone
D. Contamination reduction zone
Answer: C
Rationale: The cold zone (clean zone) is where there is no significant hazard and where EMS
provides patient care and transportation .
Q4. Which of the following scenarios does NOT involve the administration of ALS?
A. A 53-year-old patient who is given glucagon for significant hypoglycemia
B. A 64-year-old cardiac arrest patient who is defibrillated with an AED
,2
C. A 48-year-old patient whose airway is secured with a multi-lumen device
D. A 61-year-old trauma patient whose chest is decompressed with a needle
Answer: B
Rationale: AED use is a BLS skill, not ALS. Glucagon administration, multilumen airway
placement, and needle chest decompression are ALS skills .
Q5. You arrive at the scene of a reported motor vehicle collision on a busy highway. Before
exiting the ambulance, which action should you take FIRST?
A. Don high-visibility reflective vest and ensure scene safety
B. Approach the vehicle to assess the number of patients
C. Request additional resources from dispatch
D. Begin triage of patients using the START system
Answer: A
Rationale: Scene size-up begins with PPE and scene safety. The EMT must ensure their own
safety before patient contact .
Q6. Maintaining the chain of evidence at the scene of a crime should include:
A. Handling evidence with bare hands
B. Collecting all evidence before securing the scene
C. Not cutting through holes in clothing caused by weapons
D. Cleaning the scene to make it safe for entry
Answer: C
Rationale: To preserve evidence, EMTs should not cut through holes in clothing caused by
weapons (bullet holes, stab wounds). Clothing should be preserved as evidence .
Q7. A patient with a suspected cervical spine injury requires airway management. Which
technique is most appropriate to maintain alignment while opening the airway?
A. Head-tilt, chin-lift
B. Jaw-thrust maneuver
C. Recovery position
D. Hyperextension of the neck
Answer: B
Rationale: The jaw-thrust maneuver is preferred for suspected cervical spine injury because
it minimizes neck movement .
Q8. Which of the following is the primary purpose of the EMT's initial assessment?
A. Determine the mechanism of injury
B. Identify all injuries and illnesses
, 3
C. Identify and correct immediate life threats
D. Obtain a complete medical history
Answer: C
Rationale: The initial assessment focuses on life-threatening issues such as airway, breathing,
and circulation to ensure immediate stabilization .
Q9. What is the primary purpose of performing a primary assessment?
A. Obtain a complete medical history
B. Identify and treat immediate life threats
C. Determine the patient's insurance status
D. Complete the patient care report
Answer: B
Rationale: The primary assessment rapidly identifies problems involving airway, breathing,
circulation, and other immediately life-threatening conditions .
Q10. An EMT arrives at a motor-vehicle collision and notices leaking fuel near the damaged
vehicles. What should the EMT do first before approaching the patients?
A. Begin rapid patient assessment immediately
B. Remove all injured patients from the vehicles
C. Ensure scene safety and identify potential hazards
D. Apply oxygen to all visible victims
Answer: C
Rationale: EMTs must evaluate scene safety before patient contact. Identifying hazards such
as fuel leaks prevents additional injuries .
Q11. During scene size-up of a motor vehicle collision, which observation should prompt the
EMT to request additional resources BEFORE patient contact?
A. One vehicle with moderate front-end damage
B. Fluid leaks and deployed airbags in two vehicles
C. A single patient ambulating with minor abrasions
D. Smoke emanating from the engine compartment of one vehicle
Answer: D
Rationale: Smoke indicates potential fire hazard, requiring immediate notification of fire
services before patient contact .
Q12. Which of the following infectious diseases is transmittable by coming in contact with an
infected person's blood?
A. Croup
B. Hepatitis
EMT Exam Prep Guide: 100 Practice Questions with Answers
.
Section 1: Scene Size-Up & Safety (Questions 1–15)
Q1. You arrive at a motor-vehicle collision and notice leaking fuel near the vehicle. What
should you do FIRST?
A. Begin triage immediately
B. Enter the vehicle and assess the driver
C. Park uphill and establish a safe staging area
D. Disconnect the vehicle battery
Answer: C
Rationale: Scene safety takes priority. Fuel leakage creates a significant fire and explosion
hazard, so the EMT should remain at a safe location until the scene is secured .
Q2. A 34-year-old male is found unresponsive in a garage with a running generator. Which
hazard should the EMT suspect FIRST?
A. Carbon monoxide poisoning
B. Hydrogen sulfide exposure
C. Methamphetamine lab
D. Natural gas leak
Answer: A
Rationale: A running generator in an enclosed space produces carbon monoxide (CO), a
colorless, odorless gas that causes hypoxia by binding to hemoglobin with an affinity
approximately 250 times that of oxygen .
Q3. During scene size-up at a residential structure fire, the incident commander reports that
the fire is contained and the structure is safe for entry. Which zone would the EMT expect to
operate in during patient care?
A. Hot zone
B. Warm zone
C. Cold zone
D. Contamination reduction zone
Answer: C
Rationale: The cold zone (clean zone) is where there is no significant hazard and where EMS
provides patient care and transportation .
Q4. Which of the following scenarios does NOT involve the administration of ALS?
A. A 53-year-old patient who is given glucagon for significant hypoglycemia
B. A 64-year-old cardiac arrest patient who is defibrillated with an AED
,2
C. A 48-year-old patient whose airway is secured with a multi-lumen device
D. A 61-year-old trauma patient whose chest is decompressed with a needle
Answer: B
Rationale: AED use is a BLS skill, not ALS. Glucagon administration, multilumen airway
placement, and needle chest decompression are ALS skills .
Q5. You arrive at the scene of a reported motor vehicle collision on a busy highway. Before
exiting the ambulance, which action should you take FIRST?
A. Don high-visibility reflective vest and ensure scene safety
B. Approach the vehicle to assess the number of patients
C. Request additional resources from dispatch
D. Begin triage of patients using the START system
Answer: A
Rationale: Scene size-up begins with PPE and scene safety. The EMT must ensure their own
safety before patient contact .
Q6. Maintaining the chain of evidence at the scene of a crime should include:
A. Handling evidence with bare hands
B. Collecting all evidence before securing the scene
C. Not cutting through holes in clothing caused by weapons
D. Cleaning the scene to make it safe for entry
Answer: C
Rationale: To preserve evidence, EMTs should not cut through holes in clothing caused by
weapons (bullet holes, stab wounds). Clothing should be preserved as evidence .
Q7. A patient with a suspected cervical spine injury requires airway management. Which
technique is most appropriate to maintain alignment while opening the airway?
A. Head-tilt, chin-lift
B. Jaw-thrust maneuver
C. Recovery position
D. Hyperextension of the neck
Answer: B
Rationale: The jaw-thrust maneuver is preferred for suspected cervical spine injury because
it minimizes neck movement .
Q8. Which of the following is the primary purpose of the EMT's initial assessment?
A. Determine the mechanism of injury
B. Identify all injuries and illnesses
, 3
C. Identify and correct immediate life threats
D. Obtain a complete medical history
Answer: C
Rationale: The initial assessment focuses on life-threatening issues such as airway, breathing,
and circulation to ensure immediate stabilization .
Q9. What is the primary purpose of performing a primary assessment?
A. Obtain a complete medical history
B. Identify and treat immediate life threats
C. Determine the patient's insurance status
D. Complete the patient care report
Answer: B
Rationale: The primary assessment rapidly identifies problems involving airway, breathing,
circulation, and other immediately life-threatening conditions .
Q10. An EMT arrives at a motor-vehicle collision and notices leaking fuel near the damaged
vehicles. What should the EMT do first before approaching the patients?
A. Begin rapid patient assessment immediately
B. Remove all injured patients from the vehicles
C. Ensure scene safety and identify potential hazards
D. Apply oxygen to all visible victims
Answer: C
Rationale: EMTs must evaluate scene safety before patient contact. Identifying hazards such
as fuel leaks prevents additional injuries .
Q11. During scene size-up of a motor vehicle collision, which observation should prompt the
EMT to request additional resources BEFORE patient contact?
A. One vehicle with moderate front-end damage
B. Fluid leaks and deployed airbags in two vehicles
C. A single patient ambulating with minor abrasions
D. Smoke emanating from the engine compartment of one vehicle
Answer: D
Rationale: Smoke indicates potential fire hazard, requiring immediate notification of fire
services before patient contact .
Q12. Which of the following infectious diseases is transmittable by coming in contact with an
infected person's blood?
A. Croup
B. Hepatitis
