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EXAMSOFT BY TURNITIN
Maternity Clinical Judgment Examination
CJE-MAT — Maternity Exam
Maternity Clinical Judgment Examination
INSTITUTION ExamSoft by Turnitin
PROGRAM Maternity Clinical Judgment Examination
EXAM TITLE Maternity Clinical Judgment Examination 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
COURSE TITLE Maternity Clinical Judgment Examination
COURSE CODE CJE-MAT
ACADEMIC YEAR 2026/2027
TOTAL QUESTIONS 100 Questions
© BestSellerStuvia
Academic Year 2026/2027
CJE-MAT | 2026/2027
ACTUAL QUESTIONS
Domain 1: Antepartum Care & Assessment
Question 1. According to Naegele's rule, how is the estimated date of birth calculated?
A. Add 7 days to the first day of the LMP, subtract 3 months, and add 1 year
B. Add 7 days to the last day of the LMP and subtract 3 months
C. Subtract 7 days from the first day of the LMP and add 3 months
D. Add 14 days to the first day of the LMP and subtract 3 months
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Naegele's rule adds 7 days to the first day of the last menstrual period, subtracts 3 months, and adds 1 year
to estimate the date of birth.
Question 2. Which of the following is considered a positive sign of pregnancy?
A. Amenorrhea and breast tenderness
B. Fetal heart activity detected by the examiner
C. Positive urine pregnancy test
D. Chadwick's sign
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Positive signs of pregnancy are those that can only be explained by the presence of a fetus, such as fetal heart
activity detected by an examiner, visualization of the fetus, or fetal movement palpated by an examiner.
Question 3. At what gestational age is screening for gestational diabetes typically performed in a low-risk
pregnancy?
A. 12-14 weeks
B. 32-34 weeks
© BestSellerStuvia | | CJE-MAT | Academic Year 2026/2027
, © BestSellerStuvia |
C. 24-28 weeks
D. 36-37 weeks
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Routine screening for gestational diabetes is recommended between 24 and 28 weeks of gestation for most
pregnant clients.
Question 4. A client at 34 weeks reports a severe headache and visual changes. What is the nurse's
priority action?
A. Reassure the client that these are normal pregnancy symptoms
B. Encourage increased fluid intake and rest
C. Schedule a routine prenatal visit for the following week
D. Assess blood pressure and notify the provider immediately
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Severe headache and visual changes at 34 weeks may indicate preeclampsia; immediate blood pressure
assessment and provider notification are required.
Question 5. What is the recommended daily intake of folic acid for a client planning pregnancy to help
prevent neural tube defects?
A. 400 mcg
B. 100 mcg
C. 1000 mcg
D. 40 mcg
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A daily intake of 400 mcg of folic acid before conception and in early pregnancy reduces the risk of neural
tube defects.
Question 6. Quickening, the maternal perception of fetal movement, typically occurs at which gestational
age in a multiparous client?
A. 8-10 weeks
B. 12-14 weeks
C. 16-20 weeks
D. 24-28 weeks
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Fetal movement is usually first perceived by the mother between 16 and 20 weeks, often earlier in
multiparous clients.
Question 7. Which laboratory finding is expected in a client with mild preeclampsia?
A. Proteinuria and elevated blood pressure after 20 weeks
B. Hypoglycemia and elevated liver enzymes only
C. Decreased uric acid and normal platelets
D. Anemia without hypertension
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Preeclampsia is characterized by new-onset hypertension after 20 weeks accompanied by proteinuria or
other end-organ findings.
Question 8. A client at 36 weeks is scheduled for Group B Streptococcus (GBS) screening. What is the
primary purpose of this test?
A. To diagnose preterm labor
B. To determine fetal lung maturity
C. To screen for gestational diabetes
D. To identify colonization so that intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis can be given if needed
Correct Answer: D
© BestSellerStuvia | | CJE-MAT | Academic Year 2026/2027
, © BestSellerStuvia |
Rationale: GBS screening at 36-37 weeks identifies carriers who should receive intrapartum penicillin prophylaxis to
reduce neonatal infection risk.
Question 9. Which finding during a prenatal visit requires further evaluation for possible intrauterine
growth restriction?
A. Fundal height measuring 3 cm less than expected for gestational age on serial measurements
B. Fundal height consistent with gestational age
C. Maternal weight gain of 1 lb per week in the second trimester
D. Fetal heart rate of 140 bpm
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A fundal height that is consistently smaller than expected warrants evaluation for fetal growth restriction or
other complications.
Question 10. What is the primary purpose of measuring fundal height during prenatal visits?
A. To determine fetal sex
B. To estimate fetal growth and gestational age progression
C. To diagnose placental location
D. To measure amniotic fluid volume directly
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Serial fundal height measurements provide a clinical estimate of fetal growth and help identify deviations
that require further assessment.
Question 11. A client in the first trimester reports nausea and vomiting. Which instruction is most
appropriate?
A. Eat large meals three times a day
B. Restrict all oral intake until nausea resolves
C. Eat small, frequent meals and avoid triggers; notify the provider if unable to retain fluids
D. Take over-the-counter antiemetics without consulting the provider
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Small, frequent meals and avoidance of triggers are first-line measures; persistent inability to retain fluids
requires medical evaluation for hyperemesis.
Question 12. Which of the following is a common physiologic change of pregnancy that affects the
respiratory system?
A. Decreased tidal volume
B. Decreased respiratory rate
C. Increased residual volume
D. Increased oxygen consumption and mild respiratory alkalosis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Pregnancy increases oxygen consumption and minute ventilation, often resulting in a compensated
respiratory alkalosis.
Question 13. What is the purpose of Rho(D) immune globulin administration at approximately 28 weeks
in an Rh-negative client?
A. To prevent maternal sensitization to Rh-positive fetal blood cells
B. To treat existing sensitization
C. To accelerate fetal lung maturity
D. To treat gestational diabetes
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Antepartum Rho(D) immune globulin helps prevent the mother from forming antibodies against Rh-positive
fetal erythrocytes.
Question 14. A client at 20 weeks has a blood pressure of 142/92 mm Hg and 2+ proteinuria. What
condition should the nurse suspect?
© BestSellerStuvia | | CJE-MAT | Academic Year 2026/2027
EXAMSOFT BY TURNITIN
Maternity Clinical Judgment Examination
CJE-MAT — Maternity Exam
Maternity Clinical Judgment Examination
INSTITUTION ExamSoft by Turnitin
PROGRAM Maternity Clinical Judgment Examination
EXAM TITLE Maternity Clinical Judgment Examination 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
COURSE TITLE Maternity Clinical Judgment Examination
COURSE CODE CJE-MAT
ACADEMIC YEAR 2026/2027
TOTAL QUESTIONS 100 Questions
© BestSellerStuvia
Academic Year 2026/2027
CJE-MAT | 2026/2027
ACTUAL QUESTIONS
Domain 1: Antepartum Care & Assessment
Question 1. According to Naegele's rule, how is the estimated date of birth calculated?
A. Add 7 days to the first day of the LMP, subtract 3 months, and add 1 year
B. Add 7 days to the last day of the LMP and subtract 3 months
C. Subtract 7 days from the first day of the LMP and add 3 months
D. Add 14 days to the first day of the LMP and subtract 3 months
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Naegele's rule adds 7 days to the first day of the last menstrual period, subtracts 3 months, and adds 1 year
to estimate the date of birth.
Question 2. Which of the following is considered a positive sign of pregnancy?
A. Amenorrhea and breast tenderness
B. Fetal heart activity detected by the examiner
C. Positive urine pregnancy test
D. Chadwick's sign
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Positive signs of pregnancy are those that can only be explained by the presence of a fetus, such as fetal heart
activity detected by an examiner, visualization of the fetus, or fetal movement palpated by an examiner.
Question 3. At what gestational age is screening for gestational diabetes typically performed in a low-risk
pregnancy?
A. 12-14 weeks
B. 32-34 weeks
© BestSellerStuvia | | CJE-MAT | Academic Year 2026/2027
, © BestSellerStuvia |
C. 24-28 weeks
D. 36-37 weeks
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Routine screening for gestational diabetes is recommended between 24 and 28 weeks of gestation for most
pregnant clients.
Question 4. A client at 34 weeks reports a severe headache and visual changes. What is the nurse's
priority action?
A. Reassure the client that these are normal pregnancy symptoms
B. Encourage increased fluid intake and rest
C. Schedule a routine prenatal visit for the following week
D. Assess blood pressure and notify the provider immediately
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Severe headache and visual changes at 34 weeks may indicate preeclampsia; immediate blood pressure
assessment and provider notification are required.
Question 5. What is the recommended daily intake of folic acid for a client planning pregnancy to help
prevent neural tube defects?
A. 400 mcg
B. 100 mcg
C. 1000 mcg
D. 40 mcg
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A daily intake of 400 mcg of folic acid before conception and in early pregnancy reduces the risk of neural
tube defects.
Question 6. Quickening, the maternal perception of fetal movement, typically occurs at which gestational
age in a multiparous client?
A. 8-10 weeks
B. 12-14 weeks
C. 16-20 weeks
D. 24-28 weeks
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Fetal movement is usually first perceived by the mother between 16 and 20 weeks, often earlier in
multiparous clients.
Question 7. Which laboratory finding is expected in a client with mild preeclampsia?
A. Proteinuria and elevated blood pressure after 20 weeks
B. Hypoglycemia and elevated liver enzymes only
C. Decreased uric acid and normal platelets
D. Anemia without hypertension
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Preeclampsia is characterized by new-onset hypertension after 20 weeks accompanied by proteinuria or
other end-organ findings.
Question 8. A client at 36 weeks is scheduled for Group B Streptococcus (GBS) screening. What is the
primary purpose of this test?
A. To diagnose preterm labor
B. To determine fetal lung maturity
C. To screen for gestational diabetes
D. To identify colonization so that intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis can be given if needed
Correct Answer: D
© BestSellerStuvia | | CJE-MAT | Academic Year 2026/2027
, © BestSellerStuvia |
Rationale: GBS screening at 36-37 weeks identifies carriers who should receive intrapartum penicillin prophylaxis to
reduce neonatal infection risk.
Question 9. Which finding during a prenatal visit requires further evaluation for possible intrauterine
growth restriction?
A. Fundal height measuring 3 cm less than expected for gestational age on serial measurements
B. Fundal height consistent with gestational age
C. Maternal weight gain of 1 lb per week in the second trimester
D. Fetal heart rate of 140 bpm
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A fundal height that is consistently smaller than expected warrants evaluation for fetal growth restriction or
other complications.
Question 10. What is the primary purpose of measuring fundal height during prenatal visits?
A. To determine fetal sex
B. To estimate fetal growth and gestational age progression
C. To diagnose placental location
D. To measure amniotic fluid volume directly
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Serial fundal height measurements provide a clinical estimate of fetal growth and help identify deviations
that require further assessment.
Question 11. A client in the first trimester reports nausea and vomiting. Which instruction is most
appropriate?
A. Eat large meals three times a day
B. Restrict all oral intake until nausea resolves
C. Eat small, frequent meals and avoid triggers; notify the provider if unable to retain fluids
D. Take over-the-counter antiemetics without consulting the provider
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Small, frequent meals and avoidance of triggers are first-line measures; persistent inability to retain fluids
requires medical evaluation for hyperemesis.
Question 12. Which of the following is a common physiologic change of pregnancy that affects the
respiratory system?
A. Decreased tidal volume
B. Decreased respiratory rate
C. Increased residual volume
D. Increased oxygen consumption and mild respiratory alkalosis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Pregnancy increases oxygen consumption and minute ventilation, often resulting in a compensated
respiratory alkalosis.
Question 13. What is the purpose of Rho(D) immune globulin administration at approximately 28 weeks
in an Rh-negative client?
A. To prevent maternal sensitization to Rh-positive fetal blood cells
B. To treat existing sensitization
C. To accelerate fetal lung maturity
D. To treat gestational diabetes
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Antepartum Rho(D) immune globulin helps prevent the mother from forming antibodies against Rh-positive
fetal erythrocytes.
Question 14. A client at 20 weeks has a blood pressure of 142/92 mm Hg and 2+ proteinuria. What
condition should the nurse suspect?
© BestSellerStuvia | | CJE-MAT | Academic Year 2026/2027
