NCLEX-PN Exam 2026/2027 – Connecticut LPN
Licensure – 200 Questions & Answers with
Rationales | Latest Edition | Graded A+ Study
Guide
NCLEX-PN FULL PRACTICE EXAMINATION
200 Questions with Answers and Rationales
SECTION 1: MANAGEMENT OF CARE (Questions 1–25)
1. The charge nurse on a medical-surgical unit is making assignments for a licensed
practical nurse (LPN). Which task is appropriate to delegate to the LPN?
A. Perform the initial admission assessment on a patient with pneumonia
B. Administer a PRN enema to a constipated patient
C. Develop the nursing care plan for a patient with heart failure
D. Teach a patient how to self-administer insulin
Answer: B
Rationale: LPNs can administer medications (including PRN enemas) and perform stable,
,routine treatments. Initial assessment (A) and care plan development (C) require RN-level
assessment and critical thinking. Patient teaching (D) can be reinforced by LPNs but the
initial teaching is typically done by the RN.
2. A nurse is caring for a patient who has a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order. The
family asks the nurse to explain what DNR means. The nurse should respond:
A. "It means we will not provide any treatment to keep the patient alive."
B. "It means that if the patient stops breathing or the heart stops, we will not perform CPR or
advanced cardiac life support."
C. "I cannot discuss that; you need to talk to the doctor."
D. "It means the patient will be allowed to die naturally without any medical care."
Answer: B
Rationale: DNR means that if the patient experiences cardiac or respiratory arrest, CPR and
ACLS will not be initiated. It does NOT mean withholding other treatments (pain relief,
antibiotics, hydration). The nurse can explain this clearly and offer to contact the provider for
further discussion.
3. A charge nurse is observing a new graduate nurse insert a urinary catheter. The
new nurse touches the inner surface of the sterile drape without sterile gloves. The
charge nurse should:
A. Praise the new nurse for completing the procedure quickly
B. Stop the procedure immediately and remind the new nurse about sterile technique
C. Ignore the error because the patient is not at risk
D. Report the new nurse to the state board of nursing
Answer: B
Rationale: Breaking sterile technique increases the risk of infection. The charge nurse must
,intervene immediately to correct the error and prevent contamination. Reporting to the state
board (D) is not appropriate for a single correctable error.
4. A nurse manager is reviewing client rights with the nursing staff. Which statement
indicates an understanding of client rights?
A. "A client can refuse a treatment even if it is life-saving."
B. "A client cannot refuse a treatment once it has been started."
C. "A client's family can override the client's refusal."
D. "Only physicians can determine if a client is competent to refuse."
Answer: A
Rationale: A competent adult has the right to refuse any treatment, even life-saving
treatment, at any time. This is a fundamental patient right. The provider must ensure the
refusal is informed (patient understands consequences). Family cannot override (C).
5. A patient is to receive a blood transfusion. Which IV solution is compatible for
priming the tubing?
A. 5% dextrose in water (D5W)
B. Lactated Ringer's (LR)
C. 0.9% normal saline
D. 0.45% normal saline (half-strength)
Answer: C
Rationale: Only 0.9% normal saline is compatible with blood products. Dextrose solutions
(A) can cause hemolysis. LR (B) contains calcium, which can cause clotting.
6. A practical nurse is caring for a client who has been prescribed a new medication.
Which action demonstrates appropriate coordination of care?
A. Administering the medication without checking the client's allergy status
, B. Documenting the medication administration after the shift ends
C. Verifying the prescription with the healthcare provider and checking the client's allergy
history before administration
D. Asking the client if they have taken this medication before and administering it based on
their response
Answer: C
Rationale: Coordinated care requires the PN to verify prescriptions with the healthcare
provider and check for allergies before administration to ensure patient safety. This
demonstrates appropriate collaboration and communication within the healthcare team.
Option A is unsafe as it skips critical safety checks. Option B delays documentation which
can lead to errors. Option D relies solely on client recall, which is not a safe medication
administration practice.
7. A practical nurse is delegating tasks to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP).
Which task is appropriate to delegate?
A. Administering oral medications
B. Performing a sterile dressing change
C. Assisting a stable client with ambulation
D. Assessing a client's lung sounds
Answer: C
Rationale: The PN can delegate basic tasks such as assisting stable clients with ambulation
to UAPs. This is within the UAP's scope of practice and does not require nursing judgment.
Options A and B require nursing knowledge and skills and cannot be delegated to UAPs.
Option D involves assessment, which is a nursing responsibility.
8. The nurse is caring for a client scheduled for removal of a pituitary tumor using the
transsphenoidal approach. The nurse should be particularly alert for:
Licensure – 200 Questions & Answers with
Rationales | Latest Edition | Graded A+ Study
Guide
NCLEX-PN FULL PRACTICE EXAMINATION
200 Questions with Answers and Rationales
SECTION 1: MANAGEMENT OF CARE (Questions 1–25)
1. The charge nurse on a medical-surgical unit is making assignments for a licensed
practical nurse (LPN). Which task is appropriate to delegate to the LPN?
A. Perform the initial admission assessment on a patient with pneumonia
B. Administer a PRN enema to a constipated patient
C. Develop the nursing care plan for a patient with heart failure
D. Teach a patient how to self-administer insulin
Answer: B
Rationale: LPNs can administer medications (including PRN enemas) and perform stable,
,routine treatments. Initial assessment (A) and care plan development (C) require RN-level
assessment and critical thinking. Patient teaching (D) can be reinforced by LPNs but the
initial teaching is typically done by the RN.
2. A nurse is caring for a patient who has a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order. The
family asks the nurse to explain what DNR means. The nurse should respond:
A. "It means we will not provide any treatment to keep the patient alive."
B. "It means that if the patient stops breathing or the heart stops, we will not perform CPR or
advanced cardiac life support."
C. "I cannot discuss that; you need to talk to the doctor."
D. "It means the patient will be allowed to die naturally without any medical care."
Answer: B
Rationale: DNR means that if the patient experiences cardiac or respiratory arrest, CPR and
ACLS will not be initiated. It does NOT mean withholding other treatments (pain relief,
antibiotics, hydration). The nurse can explain this clearly and offer to contact the provider for
further discussion.
3. A charge nurse is observing a new graduate nurse insert a urinary catheter. The
new nurse touches the inner surface of the sterile drape without sterile gloves. The
charge nurse should:
A. Praise the new nurse for completing the procedure quickly
B. Stop the procedure immediately and remind the new nurse about sterile technique
C. Ignore the error because the patient is not at risk
D. Report the new nurse to the state board of nursing
Answer: B
Rationale: Breaking sterile technique increases the risk of infection. The charge nurse must
,intervene immediately to correct the error and prevent contamination. Reporting to the state
board (D) is not appropriate for a single correctable error.
4. A nurse manager is reviewing client rights with the nursing staff. Which statement
indicates an understanding of client rights?
A. "A client can refuse a treatment even if it is life-saving."
B. "A client cannot refuse a treatment once it has been started."
C. "A client's family can override the client's refusal."
D. "Only physicians can determine if a client is competent to refuse."
Answer: A
Rationale: A competent adult has the right to refuse any treatment, even life-saving
treatment, at any time. This is a fundamental patient right. The provider must ensure the
refusal is informed (patient understands consequences). Family cannot override (C).
5. A patient is to receive a blood transfusion. Which IV solution is compatible for
priming the tubing?
A. 5% dextrose in water (D5W)
B. Lactated Ringer's (LR)
C. 0.9% normal saline
D. 0.45% normal saline (half-strength)
Answer: C
Rationale: Only 0.9% normal saline is compatible with blood products. Dextrose solutions
(A) can cause hemolysis. LR (B) contains calcium, which can cause clotting.
6. A practical nurse is caring for a client who has been prescribed a new medication.
Which action demonstrates appropriate coordination of care?
A. Administering the medication without checking the client's allergy status
, B. Documenting the medication administration after the shift ends
C. Verifying the prescription with the healthcare provider and checking the client's allergy
history before administration
D. Asking the client if they have taken this medication before and administering it based on
their response
Answer: C
Rationale: Coordinated care requires the PN to verify prescriptions with the healthcare
provider and check for allergies before administration to ensure patient safety. This
demonstrates appropriate collaboration and communication within the healthcare team.
Option A is unsafe as it skips critical safety checks. Option B delays documentation which
can lead to errors. Option D relies solely on client recall, which is not a safe medication
administration practice.
7. A practical nurse is delegating tasks to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP).
Which task is appropriate to delegate?
A. Administering oral medications
B. Performing a sterile dressing change
C. Assisting a stable client with ambulation
D. Assessing a client's lung sounds
Answer: C
Rationale: The PN can delegate basic tasks such as assisting stable clients with ambulation
to UAPs. This is within the UAP's scope of practice and does not require nursing judgment.
Options A and B require nursing knowledge and skills and cannot be delegated to UAPs.
Option D involves assessment, which is a nursing responsibility.
8. The nurse is caring for a client scheduled for removal of a pituitary tumor using the
transsphenoidal approach. The nurse should be particularly alert for:
