Tmc Exam – Secure Comprehensive Therapist Sae
Exam Bank 2026 Actual Exam Questions And 100%
Correct Detailed Answers
1. A patient has an arterial blood gas of pH 7.28, PaCO₂ 58 mm Hg, and HCO₃⁻ 24 mEq/L. What is the
most likely interpretation?
A) Metabolic acidosis
B) Respiratory acidosis
C) Metabolic alkalosis
D) Respiratory alkalosis
Answer: B
Rationale: The pH is acidotic, and the PaCO₂ is elevated, indicating alveolar hypoventilation as the primary
cause.
2. Which device delivers the most accurate and consistent FiO₂?
A) Nasal cannula
B) Simple mask
C) Venturi mask
D) Nonrebreather mask
Answer: C
Rationale: Venturi masks use air-entrainment to deliver a precise, fixed FiO₂.
3. A patient receiving mechanical ventilation has a high peak inspiratory pressure but a normal
plateau pressure. This most suggests:
A) Decreased lung compliance
B) Increased airway resistance
C) Pneumothorax
D) Pulmonary edema
Answer: B
,Rationale: Elevated peak pressure with normal plateau pressure points to airway resistance rather than
alveolar compliance issues.
4. Which medication is a short-acting beta-2 agonist used for acute bronchospasm?
A) Albuterol
B) Ipratropium
C) Fluticasone
D) Montelukast
Answer: A
Rationale: Albuterol rapidly relaxes bronchial smooth muscle by stimulating beta-2 receptors.
5. What is the recommended oxygen saturation target for most adult patients with COPD?
A) 85–88%
B) 88–92%
C) 94–98%
D) 98–100%
Answer: B
Rationale: This range reduces the risk of oxygen-induced hypercapnia in COPD patients with chronic CO₂
retention.
6. Which finding indicates an endotracheal tube is in the trachea rather than the esophagus?
A) Absent breath sounds
B) Gastric distention
C) Positive end-tidal CO₂
D) Decreased chest rise
Answer: C
Rationale: Capnography detects exhaled CO₂, which confirms tracheal placement.
7. A patient has a pulmonary function test showing FEV₁/FVC of 55% predicted. This pattern is most
consistent with:
A) Restrictive disease
B) Obstructive disease
2
,C) Normal lungs
D) Pulmonary embolism
Answer: B
Rationale: A reduced FEV₁/FVC ratio is the hallmark of obstructive lung disease.
8. Which action is correct when a ventilator high-pressure alarm sounds?
A) Ignore it until the next shift
B) Assess the patient and circuit for obstruction or secretions
C) Increase the alarm limit
D) Disconnect the ventilator immediately
Answer: B
Rationale: High pressure may indicate mucus plugging, biting, kinking, or bronchospasm, so immediate
assessment is required.
9. Which parameter is most important to monitor during oxygen therapy?
A) Urine output
B) SpO₂ and clinical response
C) Pupil size
D) Bowel sounds
Answer: B
Rationale: Oxygen therapy is titrated to saturation and the patient’s work of breathing, mental status, and
overall response.
10. During CPR, the recommended compression depth for an adult is:
A) 1 inch
B) 1.5 inches
C) At least 2 inches
D) At least 4 inches
Answer: C
Rationale: High-quality CPR requires compressions of at least 2 inches in adults, allowing full recoil.
11. Which acid-base disturbance is caused by hyperventilation?
3
, A) Respiratory acidosis
B) Respiratory alkalosis
C) Metabolic acidosis
D) Metabolic alkalosis
Answer: B
Rationale: Hyperventilation blows off CO₂, lowering PaCO₂ and raising pH.
12. A patient with asthma has prolonged expiration and wheezing. Which medication is first-line for
acute relief?
A) Inhaled corticosteroid
B) Leukotriene modifier
C) Short-acting beta-2 agonist
D) Long-acting beta-2 agonist
Answer: C
Rationale: SABAs provide rapid bronchodilation for acute asthma symptoms.
13. What is the normal range for PaO₂ on room air?
A) 40–60 mm Hg
B) 60–80 mm Hg
C) 80–100 mm Hg
D) 100–120 mm Hg
Answer: C
Rationale: Normal PaO₂ is approximately 80–100 mm Hg at sea level.
14. Which mode of mechanical ventilation delivers a set tidal volume with every breath?
A) Pressure support
B) Assist-control
C) CPAP
D) SIMV
Answer: B
Rationale: In assist-control, a set tidal volume is delivered with each spontaneous or mandatory breath.
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Exam Bank 2026 Actual Exam Questions And 100%
Correct Detailed Answers
1. A patient has an arterial blood gas of pH 7.28, PaCO₂ 58 mm Hg, and HCO₃⁻ 24 mEq/L. What is the
most likely interpretation?
A) Metabolic acidosis
B) Respiratory acidosis
C) Metabolic alkalosis
D) Respiratory alkalosis
Answer: B
Rationale: The pH is acidotic, and the PaCO₂ is elevated, indicating alveolar hypoventilation as the primary
cause.
2. Which device delivers the most accurate and consistent FiO₂?
A) Nasal cannula
B) Simple mask
C) Venturi mask
D) Nonrebreather mask
Answer: C
Rationale: Venturi masks use air-entrainment to deliver a precise, fixed FiO₂.
3. A patient receiving mechanical ventilation has a high peak inspiratory pressure but a normal
plateau pressure. This most suggests:
A) Decreased lung compliance
B) Increased airway resistance
C) Pneumothorax
D) Pulmonary edema
Answer: B
,Rationale: Elevated peak pressure with normal plateau pressure points to airway resistance rather than
alveolar compliance issues.
4. Which medication is a short-acting beta-2 agonist used for acute bronchospasm?
A) Albuterol
B) Ipratropium
C) Fluticasone
D) Montelukast
Answer: A
Rationale: Albuterol rapidly relaxes bronchial smooth muscle by stimulating beta-2 receptors.
5. What is the recommended oxygen saturation target for most adult patients with COPD?
A) 85–88%
B) 88–92%
C) 94–98%
D) 98–100%
Answer: B
Rationale: This range reduces the risk of oxygen-induced hypercapnia in COPD patients with chronic CO₂
retention.
6. Which finding indicates an endotracheal tube is in the trachea rather than the esophagus?
A) Absent breath sounds
B) Gastric distention
C) Positive end-tidal CO₂
D) Decreased chest rise
Answer: C
Rationale: Capnography detects exhaled CO₂, which confirms tracheal placement.
7. A patient has a pulmonary function test showing FEV₁/FVC of 55% predicted. This pattern is most
consistent with:
A) Restrictive disease
B) Obstructive disease
2
,C) Normal lungs
D) Pulmonary embolism
Answer: B
Rationale: A reduced FEV₁/FVC ratio is the hallmark of obstructive lung disease.
8. Which action is correct when a ventilator high-pressure alarm sounds?
A) Ignore it until the next shift
B) Assess the patient and circuit for obstruction or secretions
C) Increase the alarm limit
D) Disconnect the ventilator immediately
Answer: B
Rationale: High pressure may indicate mucus plugging, biting, kinking, or bronchospasm, so immediate
assessment is required.
9. Which parameter is most important to monitor during oxygen therapy?
A) Urine output
B) SpO₂ and clinical response
C) Pupil size
D) Bowel sounds
Answer: B
Rationale: Oxygen therapy is titrated to saturation and the patient’s work of breathing, mental status, and
overall response.
10. During CPR, the recommended compression depth for an adult is:
A) 1 inch
B) 1.5 inches
C) At least 2 inches
D) At least 4 inches
Answer: C
Rationale: High-quality CPR requires compressions of at least 2 inches in adults, allowing full recoil.
11. Which acid-base disturbance is caused by hyperventilation?
3
, A) Respiratory acidosis
B) Respiratory alkalosis
C) Metabolic acidosis
D) Metabolic alkalosis
Answer: B
Rationale: Hyperventilation blows off CO₂, lowering PaCO₂ and raising pH.
12. A patient with asthma has prolonged expiration and wheezing. Which medication is first-line for
acute relief?
A) Inhaled corticosteroid
B) Leukotriene modifier
C) Short-acting beta-2 agonist
D) Long-acting beta-2 agonist
Answer: C
Rationale: SABAs provide rapid bronchodilation for acute asthma symptoms.
13. What is the normal range for PaO₂ on room air?
A) 40–60 mm Hg
B) 60–80 mm Hg
C) 80–100 mm Hg
D) 100–120 mm Hg
Answer: C
Rationale: Normal PaO₂ is approximately 80–100 mm Hg at sea level.
14. Which mode of mechanical ventilation delivers a set tidal volume with every breath?
A) Pressure support
B) Assist-control
C) CPAP
D) SIMV
Answer: B
Rationale: In assist-control, a set tidal volume is delivered with each spontaneous or mandatory breath.
4
