WGU D446 OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT FINAL
NEWEST 2026 ACTUAL EXAM D446 ADULT
HEALTH 2 OA FINAL EXAM WITH COMPLETE
REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT VERIFIED
ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+ (MOST
RECENT!!)
1. A nurse is preparing a client for surgery. Which finding should the nurse report immediately
to the surgical team?
A. Blood pressure of 128/76 mmHg
B. Temperature of 38.5°C (101.3°F)
C. Pulse of 78/min
D. Respirations of 16/min
Answer: B. Temperature of 38.5°C (101.3°F)
Rationale: Fever may indicate an active infection and can increase perioperative complications.
The surgical team should evaluate the finding before surgery proceeds.
2. Which statement by a client indicates understanding of informed consent?
A. "The nurse will explain all surgical risks to me."
B. "The surgeon will explain the procedure and its risks and benefits."
C. "My family must approve the procedure."
D. "Signing the form means I cannot change my mind."
Answer: B. "The surgeon will explain the procedure and its risks and benefits."
Rationale: The provider performing the procedure is responsible for explaining the procedure,
risks, benefits, and alternatives. The nurse generally witnesses the signature and verifies that
the client understands and is acting voluntarily.
3. A postoperative client is at greatest risk for atelectasis during which period?
,A. Immediately before surgery
B. Early postoperative period
C. Several months after surgery
D. Only after discharge
Answer: B. Early postoperative period
Rationale: Anesthesia, pain, shallow breathing, and immobility increase the risk of alveolar
collapse shortly after surgery.
4. Which intervention is most effective for preventing postoperative atelectasis?
A. Restricting fluids
B. Encouraging incentive spirometry
C. Keeping the client supine
D. Limiting coughing
Answer: B. Encouraging incentive spirometry
Rationale: Incentive spirometry promotes deep inspiration and alveolar expansion, helping
prevent atelectasis.
5. A postoperative client suddenly develops dyspnea, chest pain, tachycardia, and anxiety.
Which complication should the nurse suspect?
A. Constipation
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Urinary retention
D. Wound infection
Answer: B. Pulmonary embolism
Rationale: Sudden dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, tachycardia, and anxiety are classic warning
signs of pulmonary embolism and require immediate intervention.
6. Which postoperative assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Mild incisional pain
B. Urine output of 40 mL/hr
,C. Oxygen saturation of 84%
D. Temperature of 37.4°C
Answer: C. Oxygen saturation of 84%
Rationale: Severe hypoxemia threatens life and requires immediate assessment and
intervention.
7. A client reports severe incisional pain after abdominal surgery. Which action should the nurse
take first?
A. Assess the pain characteristics and vital signs
B. Tell the client pain is expected
C. Encourage ambulation
D. Remove the surgical dressing
Answer: A. Assess the pain characteristics and vital signs
Rationale: Assessment precedes intervention. Severe or unexpected pain may indicate a
complication such as bleeding, infection, or wound disruption.
8. A postoperative client's abdominal incision suddenly separates and abdominal organs are
visible. What should the nurse do first?
A. Push the organs back into the abdomen
B. Cover the area with sterile saline-moistened dressings
C. Place the client in high-Fowler position
D. Apply an abdominal binder tightly
Answer: B. Cover the area with sterile saline-moistened dressings
Rationale: Evisceration is an emergency. The exposed organs should be protected with sterile
saline-moistened dressings while the surgical team is notified.
9. Which intervention helps prevent postoperative venous thromboembolism?
A. Prolonged bed rest
B. Early ambulation
C. Limiting leg movement
D. Applying heat directly to the calves
, Answer: B. Early ambulation
Rationale: Early mobility promotes venous return and decreases venous stasis.
10. A client is receiving opioid analgesia after surgery. Which assessment is the priority?
A. Appetite
B. Bowel sounds
C. Respiratory rate
D. Skin turgor
Answer: C. Respiratory rate
Rationale: Opioids can cause respiratory depression. Respiratory status is the priority safety
assessment.
Neurological Disorders
11. A client suddenly develops facial drooping and weakness of the right arm. What is the
nurse's priority action?
A. Give oral fluids
B. Determine the time symptoms began
C. Place the client in Trendelenburg position
D. Encourage ambulation
Answer: B. Determine the time symptoms began
Rationale: Stroke treatment decisions depend heavily on the time of symptom onset or last
known well time.
12. Which finding is most characteristic of an ischemic stroke?
A. Sudden unilateral weakness
B. Gradual bilateral ankle swelling
C. Chronic joint pain
D. Progressive urinary frequency
Answer: A. Sudden unilateral weakness
NEWEST 2026 ACTUAL EXAM D446 ADULT
HEALTH 2 OA FINAL EXAM WITH COMPLETE
REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT VERIFIED
ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+ (MOST
RECENT!!)
1. A nurse is preparing a client for surgery. Which finding should the nurse report immediately
to the surgical team?
A. Blood pressure of 128/76 mmHg
B. Temperature of 38.5°C (101.3°F)
C. Pulse of 78/min
D. Respirations of 16/min
Answer: B. Temperature of 38.5°C (101.3°F)
Rationale: Fever may indicate an active infection and can increase perioperative complications.
The surgical team should evaluate the finding before surgery proceeds.
2. Which statement by a client indicates understanding of informed consent?
A. "The nurse will explain all surgical risks to me."
B. "The surgeon will explain the procedure and its risks and benefits."
C. "My family must approve the procedure."
D. "Signing the form means I cannot change my mind."
Answer: B. "The surgeon will explain the procedure and its risks and benefits."
Rationale: The provider performing the procedure is responsible for explaining the procedure,
risks, benefits, and alternatives. The nurse generally witnesses the signature and verifies that
the client understands and is acting voluntarily.
3. A postoperative client is at greatest risk for atelectasis during which period?
,A. Immediately before surgery
B. Early postoperative period
C. Several months after surgery
D. Only after discharge
Answer: B. Early postoperative period
Rationale: Anesthesia, pain, shallow breathing, and immobility increase the risk of alveolar
collapse shortly after surgery.
4. Which intervention is most effective for preventing postoperative atelectasis?
A. Restricting fluids
B. Encouraging incentive spirometry
C. Keeping the client supine
D. Limiting coughing
Answer: B. Encouraging incentive spirometry
Rationale: Incentive spirometry promotes deep inspiration and alveolar expansion, helping
prevent atelectasis.
5. A postoperative client suddenly develops dyspnea, chest pain, tachycardia, and anxiety.
Which complication should the nurse suspect?
A. Constipation
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Urinary retention
D. Wound infection
Answer: B. Pulmonary embolism
Rationale: Sudden dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, tachycardia, and anxiety are classic warning
signs of pulmonary embolism and require immediate intervention.
6. Which postoperative assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Mild incisional pain
B. Urine output of 40 mL/hr
,C. Oxygen saturation of 84%
D. Temperature of 37.4°C
Answer: C. Oxygen saturation of 84%
Rationale: Severe hypoxemia threatens life and requires immediate assessment and
intervention.
7. A client reports severe incisional pain after abdominal surgery. Which action should the nurse
take first?
A. Assess the pain characteristics and vital signs
B. Tell the client pain is expected
C. Encourage ambulation
D. Remove the surgical dressing
Answer: A. Assess the pain characteristics and vital signs
Rationale: Assessment precedes intervention. Severe or unexpected pain may indicate a
complication such as bleeding, infection, or wound disruption.
8. A postoperative client's abdominal incision suddenly separates and abdominal organs are
visible. What should the nurse do first?
A. Push the organs back into the abdomen
B. Cover the area with sterile saline-moistened dressings
C. Place the client in high-Fowler position
D. Apply an abdominal binder tightly
Answer: B. Cover the area with sterile saline-moistened dressings
Rationale: Evisceration is an emergency. The exposed organs should be protected with sterile
saline-moistened dressings while the surgical team is notified.
9. Which intervention helps prevent postoperative venous thromboembolism?
A. Prolonged bed rest
B. Early ambulation
C. Limiting leg movement
D. Applying heat directly to the calves
, Answer: B. Early ambulation
Rationale: Early mobility promotes venous return and decreases venous stasis.
10. A client is receiving opioid analgesia after surgery. Which assessment is the priority?
A. Appetite
B. Bowel sounds
C. Respiratory rate
D. Skin turgor
Answer: C. Respiratory rate
Rationale: Opioids can cause respiratory depression. Respiratory status is the priority safety
assessment.
Neurological Disorders
11. A client suddenly develops facial drooping and weakness of the right arm. What is the
nurse's priority action?
A. Give oral fluids
B. Determine the time symptoms began
C. Place the client in Trendelenburg position
D. Encourage ambulation
Answer: B. Determine the time symptoms began
Rationale: Stroke treatment decisions depend heavily on the time of symptom onset or last
known well time.
12. Which finding is most characteristic of an ischemic stroke?
A. Sudden unilateral weakness
B. Gradual bilateral ankle swelling
C. Chronic joint pain
D. Progressive urinary frequency
Answer: A. Sudden unilateral weakness
