NUR 257 CHRONIC EXAM 1 -
COMPREHENSIVE REVIEW QUESTIONS
AND ANSWERS | 2026/2027 UPDATE |
100% CORRECT-GALEN.
1. A patient with Type 2 Diabetes presents with a Glycated Hemoglobin (HbA1c) level of 8.9%.
What is the most appropriate nursing interpretation of this finding?
A. The patient’s glucose levels have been well-controlled over the last 3 months.
B. The patient has experienced frequent episodes of hypoglycemia recently.
C. The patient’s blood glucose has been poorly controlled over the last 120 days.
D. The patient requires an immediate bolus of short-acting insulin.
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: HbA1c reflects average blood glucose levels over the life of a red
blood cell (approx. 120 days). A level above 7% typically indicates poor glycemic control.
2. Which assessment finding in a patient with Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)
requires immediate intervention?
A. Oxygen saturation of 89% on room air.
B. Use of accessory muscles and paradoxical chest wall movement.
C. Productive cough with clear sputum.
,D. Barrel chest and clubbing of the fingers.
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: While O2 saturation of 89% and barrel chest are common in
COPD, the use of accessory muscles and paradoxical movement indicate acute respiratory
distress and potential failure.
3. A patient with Stage 3 Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) is prescribed Erythropoietin injections.
The nurse understands the primary goal of this therapy is to:
A. Stimulate red blood cell production in the bone marrow.
B. Prevent calcium loss from the bones.
C. Increase the glomerular filtration rate.
D. Lower serum potassium levels.
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: CKD patients often suffer from anemia because the kidneys
cannot produce enough erythropoietin to stimulate RBC production.
4. When teaching a patient about the side effects of Lisinopril, which symptom should the
nurse instruct the patient to report immediately?
A. A persistent dry cough.
B. Mild dizziness when standing up quickly.
C. Swelling of the lips, tongue, or throat.
, D. A metallic taste in the mouth.
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Angioedema (swelling of the airway/face) is a life-threatening
adverse effect of ACE inhibitors like Lisinopril.
5. A patient with Heart Failure is prescribed Spironolactone. Which laboratory value should
the nurse monitor most closely?
A. Serum Sodium.
B. Serum Calcium.
C. Serum Potassium.
D. Serum Magnesium.
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, putting the
patient at high risk for hyperkalemia.
6. A patient is diagnosed with Right-Sided Heart Failure. Which clinical manifestation should
the nurse expect to find?
A. Pulmonary crackles and orthopnea.
B. Frothy pink-tinged sputum.
C. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea.
D. Jugular venous distension (JVD) and peripheral edema.
COMPREHENSIVE REVIEW QUESTIONS
AND ANSWERS | 2026/2027 UPDATE |
100% CORRECT-GALEN.
1. A patient with Type 2 Diabetes presents with a Glycated Hemoglobin (HbA1c) level of 8.9%.
What is the most appropriate nursing interpretation of this finding?
A. The patient’s glucose levels have been well-controlled over the last 3 months.
B. The patient has experienced frequent episodes of hypoglycemia recently.
C. The patient’s blood glucose has been poorly controlled over the last 120 days.
D. The patient requires an immediate bolus of short-acting insulin.
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: HbA1c reflects average blood glucose levels over the life of a red
blood cell (approx. 120 days). A level above 7% typically indicates poor glycemic control.
2. Which assessment finding in a patient with Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)
requires immediate intervention?
A. Oxygen saturation of 89% on room air.
B. Use of accessory muscles and paradoxical chest wall movement.
C. Productive cough with clear sputum.
,D. Barrel chest and clubbing of the fingers.
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: While O2 saturation of 89% and barrel chest are common in
COPD, the use of accessory muscles and paradoxical movement indicate acute respiratory
distress and potential failure.
3. A patient with Stage 3 Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) is prescribed Erythropoietin injections.
The nurse understands the primary goal of this therapy is to:
A. Stimulate red blood cell production in the bone marrow.
B. Prevent calcium loss from the bones.
C. Increase the glomerular filtration rate.
D. Lower serum potassium levels.
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: CKD patients often suffer from anemia because the kidneys
cannot produce enough erythropoietin to stimulate RBC production.
4. When teaching a patient about the side effects of Lisinopril, which symptom should the
nurse instruct the patient to report immediately?
A. A persistent dry cough.
B. Mild dizziness when standing up quickly.
C. Swelling of the lips, tongue, or throat.
, D. A metallic taste in the mouth.
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Angioedema (swelling of the airway/face) is a life-threatening
adverse effect of ACE inhibitors like Lisinopril.
5. A patient with Heart Failure is prescribed Spironolactone. Which laboratory value should
the nurse monitor most closely?
A. Serum Sodium.
B. Serum Calcium.
C. Serum Potassium.
D. Serum Magnesium.
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, putting the
patient at high risk for hyperkalemia.
6. A patient is diagnosed with Right-Sided Heart Failure. Which clinical manifestation should
the nurse expect to find?
A. Pulmonary crackles and orthopnea.
B. Frothy pink-tinged sputum.
C. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea.
D. Jugular venous distension (JVD) and peripheral edema.
