Series Actual Exam 2026/2027 | Complete Exam-Style
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### Pharmacological Principles & Safe Medication Administration
Q1: A nurse is reviewing the rights of medication administration with a newly licensed PN.
Which of the following actions best demonstrates the "right documentation"?
A. Recording the medication in the MAR before administering it to save time.
B. Documenting the medication immediately after administration, including the route and
site. [CORRECT]
C. Waiting until the end of the shift to document all administered medications to maintain
workflow.
D. Having another nurse co-sign the documentation for all routine oral medications.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This choice is correct because documenting immediately after administration
ensures accurate, real-time tracking of the client's medication history and prevents
duplicate dosing. In PN practice, we prioritize timely documentation as a fundamental safety
measure.
Q2: A client is prescribed a new medication, lisinopril. Before administering the first dose,
which of the following assessments is the nurse's priority?
A. Checking the client's most recent blood glucose level.
B. Assessing the client's baseline blood pressure and heart rate. [CORRECT]
C. Asking the client about their preferred time for taking evening medications.
D. Reviewing the client's dietary preferences for sodium intake.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B. This choice is correct because establishing a baseline blood
pressure and heart rate is essential before giving an antihypertensive to evaluate the
medication's effectiveness and prevent unsafe hypotension. This aligns with the principle of
thorough baseline assessment prior to new drug administration.
Q3: A nurse is preparing to administer a controlled substance. Which of the following
actions is required by facility policy and federal law?
A. Disposing of any unused portion in the regular trash bin.
B. Having a second nurse witness the wasting of the unused portion and co-sign the record.
[CORRECT]
C. Documenting the administration only at the end of the shift to avoid interruptions.
D. Storing the medication in the client's bedside drawer for easy access.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This choice is correct because federal regulations mandate that a second licensed
nurse witness and co-sign the disposal of any unused portion of a controlled substance to
,prevent diversion. This matches the principle of strict accountability in safe medication
administration.
Q4: A nurse is calculating a medication dosage. The provider prescribes amoxicillin 500 mg
PO. The available formulation is amoxicillin 250 mg/5 mL. How many mL should the nurse
administer?
A. 2.5 mL
B. 5 mL
C. 10 mL [CORRECT]
D. 15 mL
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This choice is correct because using the formula (Desired / Have) × Quantity, (500
mg / 250 mg) × 5 mL equals 10 mL. This matches the fundamental principle of accurate
dosage calculation to ensure the client receives the prescribed therapeutic amount.
Q5: A nurse is teaching a client about the pharmacokinetics of their newly prescribed oral
medication. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of
"absorption"?
A. "This is how the medication is broken down by my liver."
B. "This is how the medication moves from my gastrointestinal tract into my bloodstream."
[CORRECT]
C. "This is how the medication produces its intended effect on my body."
D. "This is how my kidneys filter the medication out of my system."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B. This choice is correct because absorption specifically refers
to the process by which a medication moves from its site of administration into the systemic
circulation. This aligns with the core pharmacological concept of how oral medications enter
the bloodstream.
Q6: A nurse is reviewing a client's medication list and notes a potential drug-drug interaction
between warfarin and ibuprofen. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Administer both medications as prescribed since the provider ordered them.
B. Advise the client to take the ibuprofen with a full glass of milk.
C. Withhold the medications and notify the prescribing provider of the interaction.
[CORRECT]
D. Monitor the client's blood pressure closely for the next 24 hours.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This choice is correct because combining warfarin and ibuprofen significantly
increases the risk of severe bleeding, requiring immediate provider notification to adjust the
regimen. In PN practice, we prioritize client safety by intervening when dangerous drug
interactions are identified.
Q7: A nurse reviews the following MAR and lab data: Furosemide 40 mg PO daily is
scheduled for 0900. The client's morning lab results show a potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L.
What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Administer the furosemide as scheduled and encourage orange juice intake.
, B. Withhold the furosemide and notify the provider about the low potassium level.
[CORRECT]
C. Request an order for a potassium supplement and give it before the furosemide.
D. Document the lab value and administer the medication since the dose is standard.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This choice is correct because furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic, and
administering it to a client who is already hypokalemic (K+ 3.2 mEq/L) can lead to life-
threatening cardiac dysrhythmias. This aligns with the principle of using lab data to guide
safe medication administration.
Q8: A nurse is administering medications via a nasogastric (NG) tube. Which of the following
actions should the nurse take to ensure safe administration?
A. Crush all medications, including enteric-coated tablets, to prevent tube clogging.
B. Flush the tube with 30 mL of water before and after each individual medication.
[CORRECT]
C. Mix all crushed medications together in a single cup to save time.
D. Administer the medications with the head of the bed elevated to 15 degrees.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B. This choice is correct because flushing with water before
and after each medication prevents tube clogging and ensures the full dose is delivered
without drug interactions in the tube. This matches the standard of care for safe enteral
medication administration.
Q9: A client asks the nurse why their prescription is for a "generic" medication instead of the
brand name. Which of the following responses is most appropriate?
A. "Generic medications are less effective than brand-name drugs."
B. "Generic medications have different active ingredients than the brand name."
C. "Generic medications contain the same active ingredients and are required to work the
same way as the brand name." [CORRECT]
D. "Generic medications are only used for clients who cannot afford their co-pay."
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This choice is correct because generic medications must meet the same FDA
standards for safety, efficacy, and active ingredients as their brand-name counterparts. This
aligns with the pharmacological principle of therapeutic equivalence, providing accurate
reassurance to the client.
Q10: A nurse is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection of heparin. Which of the
following techniques is appropriate?
A. Aspirating for blood return before injecting the medication.
B. Massaging the injection site vigorously after administration to promote absorption.
C. Injecting the medication into the abdomen, at least 2 inches away from the umbilicus.
[CORRECT]
D. Using a 22-gauge needle to ensure the medication reaches the subcutaneous tissue.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This choice is correct because the abdomen is the preferred site for subcutaneous
heparin, and staying 2 inches away from the umbilicus ensures proper tissue absorption and