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Hondros NUR 245 HESI Med-Surg Exam | Adult Nursing II (2026/2027) | A+ Guarantee

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Hondros NUR 245 HESI Med-Surg Exam Concepts of Nursing Care of the Adult II Q&A delivers a comprehensive, exam-focused review with practice questions, verified answers, and detailed rationales covering adult health disorders, medical-surgical nursing, patient assessment, clinical judgment, prioritization, safety, nursing interventions, and evidence-based care. Ideal for strengthening weak areas and preparing confidently for the HESI exam.Hondros NUR 245 HESI Exam, NUR 245 HESI Med Surg Exam, Hondros NUR 245 HESI, NUR 245 Questions and Answers, NUR 245 HESI Questions, NUR 245 HESI Answers, Med Surg HESI Exam, Medical Surgical Nursing HESI, Nursing Care Adult II Exam, Concepts of Nursing Care Adult II, Adult Health Nursing HESI, NUR 245 Study Guide, NUR 245 HESI Practice Exam, NUR 245 HESI Prep, Med Surg Nursing Questions, Adult Nursing Q&A, Hondros Nursing HESI, NUR 245 Review#NUR245 #NUR245HESI #HondrosCollege #HESIExam #MedSurgHESI #MedicalSurgicalNursing #AdultHealthNursing #NursingExam #ExamQuestions #ExamAnswers #ExamPrep #StudyGuide

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,Hondros NUR 245 HESI Med-Surg Exam | Concepts of Nursing
Care of the Adult II (2026) Q&A


1. The nurse is delegating tasks on a medical-surgical unit. Which task is most appropriate
to assign to a Licensed Practical Nurse (LPN)?

A) Administer a nitroglycerin drip for chest pain

B) Assess a new patient's pain level post-operatively

C) Insert a nasogastric tube for a patient with a bowel obstruction

D) Draw blood for a type and crossmatch



Correct Answer: Draw blood for a type and crossmatch



Rationale: Drawing blood is within the scope of practice for an LPN in most states and
does not require the advanced assessment or critical thinking skills of an RN.
Administering titratable IV drips (A) and performing initial assessments (B) require RN-
level judgment, and NG tube insertion (C) is often beyond LPN scope.



2. An Unlicensed Assistive Personnel (UAP) reports that a patient's blood glucose is 55
mg/dL. What is the nurse's priority action?

A) Ask the UAP to provide the patient with orange juice

B) Instruct the UAP to apply a topical barrier cream

C) Immediately assess the patient and administer a fast-acting carbohydrate

D) Delegate to the UAP to obtain a repeat glucose reading in 30 minutes



Correct Answer: Immediately assess the patient and administer a fast-acting carbohydrate



Rationale: A blood glucose of 55 mg/dL indicates hypoglycemia, which can lead to
unconsciousness or seizures if untreated. The nurse must immediately assess the patient's

,level of consciousness and ability to swallow, then administer a fast-acting carbohydrate
(e.g., orange juice, glucose gel). Delegating treatment to a UAP or delaying care is unsafe.



3. The nurse is caring for four patients. Which patient requires the most immediate
assessment?

A) A post-op day 2 patient complaining of incisional pain rated 6/10

B) A patient with stable angina who reports chest pain that resolved with one nitroglycerin
tablet 15 minutes ago

C) A patient 4 hours post-operative who is drowsy, has a respiratory rate of 8, and faint
breath sounds

D) A patient with cirrhosis who has 2+ pitting edema in the lower extremities



Correct Answer: A patient 4 hours post-operative who is drowsy, has a respiratory rate of
8, and faint breath sounds



Rationale: This patient exhibits signs of respiratory depression and possible opioid
overdose or other post-operative complication, which is immediately life-threatening. A
respiratory rate of 8 is below the normal range of 12-20 and requires urgent intervention.
The other patients have stable or expected findings.



4. When prioritizing patient care, the nurse should make decisions based on which of the
following?

A) The patient's age and past medical history

B) Only the information presented in the current scenario or question

C) Which patient has been waiting the longest for care

D) The complexity of each patient's diagnosis



Correct Answer: Only the information presented in the current scenario or question

, Rationale: In test-taking and clinical prioritization, the nurse should base decisions solely
on the data provided in the scenario. Assumptions about age, waiting time, or diagnosis
complexity beyond the given information can lead to incorrect prioritization.



5. A patient with a history of stable angina reports chest pain. Which description is most
consistent with stable angina?

A) Crushing substernal pain at rest, lasting 20 minutes

B) Pressure with exertion, lasting 8 minutes, relieved by rest

C) Sharp, pleuritic pain that worsens with deep inspiration

D) Radiating pain to the back with tearing sensation



Correct Answer: Pressure with exertion, lasting 8 minutes, relieved by rest



Rationale: Stable angina is characterized by predictable chest pain or pressure that occurs
with exertion or stress, is relieved by rest or nitroglycerin, and typically lasts less than 15
minutes. Crushing pain at rest suggests unstable angina or MI, sharp pleuritic pain
suggests pericarditis or pulmonary issues, and tearing pain suggests aortic dissection.



6. Which of the following is the most important initial diagnostic test for a patient with
suspected acute coronary syndrome (ACS)?

A) Chest X-ray

B) Complete blood count

C) 12-lead electrocardiogram (EKG)

D) Cardiac troponin level



Correct Answer: 12-lead electrocardiogram (EKG)



Rationale: The 12-lead EKG is the most important initial diagnostic test for a patient with
suspected acute coronary syndrome. It provides immediate information about ST-

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