Maternal-Newborn Nursing Practice Exam 2026 |Questions |Answers
|Rationales
1. What is the primary reason for administering Vitamin K to a newborn shortly
after birth?
A. To prevent neonatal infection
B. To promote the synthesis of clotting factors in the liver
C. To increase the newborn’s blood glucose levels
D. To stimulate the production of red blood cells
Answer: B
Rationale: Newborns are born with a sterile gut and lack the bacteria necessary to
synthesize Vitamin K, which is essential for the liver to produce clotting factors.
2. A nurse is assessing a pregnant client at 20 weeks gestation. Where should
the nurse expect to find the fundus?
A. At the level of the symphysis pubis
B. Halfway between the symphysis pubis and the umbilicus
C. At the level of the umbilicus
D. At the level of the xiphoid process
Answer: C
Rationale: At approximately 20 weeks of gestation, the fundus is typically located at the
level of the umbilicus.
,3. Using Naegele’s rule, what is the estimated date of delivery (EDD) for a client
whose last menstrual period (LMP) began on March 10?
A. December 17
B. December 10
C. January 17
D. November 17
Answer: A
Rationale: Naegele’s rule adds 7 days to the LMP and subtracts 3 months (March 10 + 7
days = March 17; March 17 - 3 months = December 17).
4. Which of the following is a classic sign of Placenta Previa?
A. Severe abdominal pain and board-like abdomen
B. Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding
C. Dark red vaginal bleeding with uterine tenderness
D. Intermittent lower back pain
Answer: B
Rationale: Placenta previa is characterized by painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the
second or third trimester.
5. A nurse is monitoring a fetal heart rate (FHR) tracing and notes late
decelerations. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Increase the rate of the oxytocin infusion
B. Administer oxygen via face mask at 8-10 L/min
C. Perform a vaginal exam to check for cord prolapse
D. Place the client in a supine position
Answer: B
Rationale: Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency. Priority actions include
turning the client to the side, administering oxygen, and stopping oxytocin.
, 6. What is the therapeutic level for a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate for
preeclampsia?
A. 1 to 3 mg/dL
B. 8 to 10 mEq/L
C. 4 to 7 mEq/L
D. 12 to 15 mEq/L
Answer: C
Rationale: The therapeutic serum magnesium level for preventing seizures in
preeclampsia is generally 4 to 7 mEq/L.
7. Which medication is considered the antidote for Magnesium Sulfate toxicity?
A. Naloxone
B. Protamine sulfate
C. Atropine
D. Calcium gluconate
Answer: D
Rationale: Calcium gluconate is the specific antagonist used to reverse the effects of
magnesium toxicity.
8. A client in active labor has a fetal monitor showing variable decelerations.
This pattern is most likely caused by:
A. Head compression
B. Uteroplacental insufficiency
C. Umbilical cord compression
D. Maternal hypotension
Answer: C
Rationale: Variable decelerations are typically caused by umbilical cord compression.
|Rationales
1. What is the primary reason for administering Vitamin K to a newborn shortly
after birth?
A. To prevent neonatal infection
B. To promote the synthesis of clotting factors in the liver
C. To increase the newborn’s blood glucose levels
D. To stimulate the production of red blood cells
Answer: B
Rationale: Newborns are born with a sterile gut and lack the bacteria necessary to
synthesize Vitamin K, which is essential for the liver to produce clotting factors.
2. A nurse is assessing a pregnant client at 20 weeks gestation. Where should
the nurse expect to find the fundus?
A. At the level of the symphysis pubis
B. Halfway between the symphysis pubis and the umbilicus
C. At the level of the umbilicus
D. At the level of the xiphoid process
Answer: C
Rationale: At approximately 20 weeks of gestation, the fundus is typically located at the
level of the umbilicus.
,3. Using Naegele’s rule, what is the estimated date of delivery (EDD) for a client
whose last menstrual period (LMP) began on March 10?
A. December 17
B. December 10
C. January 17
D. November 17
Answer: A
Rationale: Naegele’s rule adds 7 days to the LMP and subtracts 3 months (March 10 + 7
days = March 17; March 17 - 3 months = December 17).
4. Which of the following is a classic sign of Placenta Previa?
A. Severe abdominal pain and board-like abdomen
B. Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding
C. Dark red vaginal bleeding with uterine tenderness
D. Intermittent lower back pain
Answer: B
Rationale: Placenta previa is characterized by painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the
second or third trimester.
5. A nurse is monitoring a fetal heart rate (FHR) tracing and notes late
decelerations. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Increase the rate of the oxytocin infusion
B. Administer oxygen via face mask at 8-10 L/min
C. Perform a vaginal exam to check for cord prolapse
D. Place the client in a supine position
Answer: B
Rationale: Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency. Priority actions include
turning the client to the side, administering oxygen, and stopping oxytocin.
, 6. What is the therapeutic level for a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate for
preeclampsia?
A. 1 to 3 mg/dL
B. 8 to 10 mEq/L
C. 4 to 7 mEq/L
D. 12 to 15 mEq/L
Answer: C
Rationale: The therapeutic serum magnesium level for preventing seizures in
preeclampsia is generally 4 to 7 mEq/L.
7. Which medication is considered the antidote for Magnesium Sulfate toxicity?
A. Naloxone
B. Protamine sulfate
C. Atropine
D. Calcium gluconate
Answer: D
Rationale: Calcium gluconate is the specific antagonist used to reverse the effects of
magnesium toxicity.
8. A client in active labor has a fetal monitor showing variable decelerations.
This pattern is most likely caused by:
A. Head compression
B. Uteroplacental insufficiency
C. Umbilical cord compression
D. Maternal hypotension
Answer: C
Rationale: Variable decelerations are typically caused by umbilical cord compression.
