PMT 3600V ADVANCED PROGRAM
MANAGEMENT EXAM 3
1. Which document establishes the formal link between the Capability Development
Document (CDD) and the Acquisition Strategy?
A. Systems Engineering Plan (SEP)
B. Test and Evaluation Master Plan (TEMP)
C. Life Cycle Sustainment Plan (LCSP)
D. Acquisition Program Baseline (APB)
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: The Acquisition Program Baseline (APB) documents the
performance, schedule, and cost goals of a program based on the requirements in the CDD.
2. In the context of Earned Value Management (EVM), if the Cost Performance Index (CPI) is
0.85 and the Schedule Performance Index (SPI) is 1.10, which statement is true?
A. The program is under budget and ahead of schedule.
B. The program is over budget and behind schedule.
C. The program is under budget and behind schedule.
D. The program is over budget and ahead of schedule.
,Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: A CPI less than 1.0 indicates cost overrun (over budget), while
an SPI greater than 1.0 indicates the program is ahead of schedule.
3. Which contract type places the maximum risk and full responsibility for all costs and
resulting profit or loss upon the contractor?
A. Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)
B. Fixed Price Incentive Firm (FPIF)
C. Cost Plus Award Fee (CPAF)
D. Firm Fixed Price (FFP)
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Firm Fixed Price contracts place maximum risk on the
contractor as the price is not subject to adjustment based on cost experience.
4. What is the primary purpose of a Technology Readiness Assessment (TRA)?
A. To determine the production readiness of a manufacturer.
B. To validate the operational suitability of a prototype.
C. To assess the cybersecurity vulnerabilities of a system.
D. To evaluate the maturity of Critical Technology Elements (CTEs) before Milestone B.
Answer: D
, Conceptual Explanation: TRAs are conducted to evaluate the maturity of CTEs to ensure
they meet the required Technology Readiness Level (TRL) for milestone decisions.
5. During the Engineering and Manufacturing Development (EMD) phase, which review is
conducted to ensure the design can proceed into fabrication, assembly, and integration?
A. Preliminary Design Review (PDR)
B. Critical Design Review (CDR)
C. System Verification Review (SVR)
D. Production Readiness Review (PRR)
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: The Critical Design Review (CDR) assesses design maturity and
determines if the system is ready for fabrication and testing.
6. Which appropriation category is typically used for the modernization and upgrade of
existing major end items?
A. Procurement
B. Operations and Maintenance (O&M)
C. Research, Development, Test, and Evaluation (RDT&E)
D. Military Construction (MILCON)
Answer: A
MANAGEMENT EXAM 3
1. Which document establishes the formal link between the Capability Development
Document (CDD) and the Acquisition Strategy?
A. Systems Engineering Plan (SEP)
B. Test and Evaluation Master Plan (TEMP)
C. Life Cycle Sustainment Plan (LCSP)
D. Acquisition Program Baseline (APB)
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: The Acquisition Program Baseline (APB) documents the
performance, schedule, and cost goals of a program based on the requirements in the CDD.
2. In the context of Earned Value Management (EVM), if the Cost Performance Index (CPI) is
0.85 and the Schedule Performance Index (SPI) is 1.10, which statement is true?
A. The program is under budget and ahead of schedule.
B. The program is over budget and behind schedule.
C. The program is under budget and behind schedule.
D. The program is over budget and ahead of schedule.
,Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: A CPI less than 1.0 indicates cost overrun (over budget), while
an SPI greater than 1.0 indicates the program is ahead of schedule.
3. Which contract type places the maximum risk and full responsibility for all costs and
resulting profit or loss upon the contractor?
A. Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)
B. Fixed Price Incentive Firm (FPIF)
C. Cost Plus Award Fee (CPAF)
D. Firm Fixed Price (FFP)
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Firm Fixed Price contracts place maximum risk on the
contractor as the price is not subject to adjustment based on cost experience.
4. What is the primary purpose of a Technology Readiness Assessment (TRA)?
A. To determine the production readiness of a manufacturer.
B. To validate the operational suitability of a prototype.
C. To assess the cybersecurity vulnerabilities of a system.
D. To evaluate the maturity of Critical Technology Elements (CTEs) before Milestone B.
Answer: D
, Conceptual Explanation: TRAs are conducted to evaluate the maturity of CTEs to ensure
they meet the required Technology Readiness Level (TRL) for milestone decisions.
5. During the Engineering and Manufacturing Development (EMD) phase, which review is
conducted to ensure the design can proceed into fabrication, assembly, and integration?
A. Preliminary Design Review (PDR)
B. Critical Design Review (CDR)
C. System Verification Review (SVR)
D. Production Readiness Review (PRR)
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: The Critical Design Review (CDR) assesses design maturity and
determines if the system is ready for fabrication and testing.
6. Which appropriation category is typically used for the modernization and upgrade of
existing major end items?
A. Procurement
B. Operations and Maintenance (O&M)
C. Research, Development, Test, and Evaluation (RDT&E)
D. Military Construction (MILCON)
Answer: A
