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Exam (elaborations)

APEA 3P Predictor Exam (New Version) - With Solutions

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APEA 3P Predictor Exam (New Version) - With Solutions

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,A 58-year-old patient presents with sudden-onset, severe left flank pain radiating to
the groin. Urinalysis shows hematuria. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Pyelonephritis
B. Renal calculi
C. Appendicitis
D. Diverticulitis

Answer: B
Rationale: Flank pain radiating to the groin with hematuria is classic for kidney
stones.




A patient with chronic atrial fibrillation is prescribed dabigatran. Which lab test is
most relevant to monitor?
A. INR
B. aPTT
C. Serum creatinine
D. Platelet count

Answer: C
Rationale: Dabigatran is renally cleared; renal function must be monitored to
prevent accumulation.




A patient presents with dyspnea, orthopnea, and lower extremity edema. Physical
assessment reveals S3 heart sound and bibasilar crackles. First-line pharmacotherapy
includes:
A. ACE inhibitors and diuretics
B. Calcium channel blockers
C. NSAIDs
D. Beta-blockers only

, Answer: A
Rationale: ACE inhibitors improve survival in heart failure; diuretics relieve
congestion.




A patient presents with acute onset severe headache, nausea, and vision changes.
Blood pressure is 220/130 mmHg. Initial management should include:
A. IV antihypertensives (e.g., labetalol)
B. Oral beta-blocker at home
C. Observation
D. Immediate surgery

Answer: A
Rationale: Hypertensive emergency requires IV antihypertensive therapy to prevent
end-organ damage.




A patient presents with tachypnea, fever, hypotension, and confusion. Lactate is
elevated. Initial pharmacologic intervention:
A. Broad-spectrum IV antibiotics
B. Oral antibiotics
C. IV corticosteroids only
D. IV vasopressors before antibiotics

Answer: A
Rationale: Septic shock requires immediate broad-spectrum IV antibiotics after
cultures; vasopressors may be added but antibiotics are time-sensitive.

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