STNA Week 12 Comprehensive Quiz 2026 UPDATE
1. According to the Kübler-Ross model, what is the first stage of grief a resident
typically experiences after receiving a terminal diagnosis?
A. Anger
B. Denial
C. Bargaining
D. Depression
Answer: B
Rationale: Denial is typically the first stage of the five stages of grief described by Elisabeth
Kübler-Ross, where the person refuses to believe they are dying.
2. When providing post-mortem care, the STNA should perform which action
first?
A. Respectfully position the body in normal alignment before rigor mortis sets in
B. Wrap the body in a shroud
C. Remove all medical tubes and IV lines immediately
D. Call the funeral home to pick up the resident
Answer: A
Rationale: The STNA should position the body in alignment and close the eyes/mouth
before rigor mortis occurs; nurses usually handle the removal of tubes depending on the
facility policy or coroner’s requirements.
,3. Which of the following senses is generally believed to be the last to leave a
person as they approach death?
A. Hearing
B. Touch
C. Taste
D. Sight
Answer: A
Rationale: Hearing is widely considered the last sense to fail, which is why STNAs are
encouraged to keep speaking to the resident in a comforting tone.
4. What is the primary goal of palliative care for a resident with a terminal
illness?
A. To find a surgical cure for the disease
B. To provide comfort, manage pain, and improve quality of life
C. To extend life at all costs using ventilators
D. To perform aggressive physical therapy to regain strength
Answer: B
Rationale: Palliative care focuses on comfort and symptom management rather than
curing the underlying disease.
5. A resident has a ‘DNR’ order. What does this mean for the STNA?
A. Do Not Resuscitate if the resident’s heart or breathing stops
B. Do Not Read medical charts to the resident
C. Do Not Restrict the resident’s diet
D. Department of Nursing Registry
Answer: A
Rationale: DNR stands for Do Not Resuscitate, meaning medical staff should not perform
CPR or advanced life support if the resident’s heart stops.
, 6. Which respiratory pattern is often observed in residents who are very close to
death, characterized by alternating periods of deep breathing and apnea?
A. Tachypnea
B. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
C. Bradypnea
D. Orthopnea
Answer: B
Rationale: Cheyne-Stokes breathing is a specific pattern of irregular breathing often seen
in the final stages of life.
7. When performing Passive Range of Motion (PROM) on a resident’s hip,
moving the leg away from the midline of the body is called:
A. Adduction
B. Abduction
C. Flexion
D. Extension
Answer: B
Rationale: Abduction is the movement of a limb away from the midline of the body.
8. To prevent ‘foot drop’ in a bedridden resident, the STNA should use:
A. A gait belt
B. A trochanter roll
C. A footboard
D. A bed cradle
Answer: C
Rationale: A footboard keeps the feet in a natural flexed position (dorsiflexion) to prevent
the permanent shortening of muscles known as foot drop.
1. According to the Kübler-Ross model, what is the first stage of grief a resident
typically experiences after receiving a terminal diagnosis?
A. Anger
B. Denial
C. Bargaining
D. Depression
Answer: B
Rationale: Denial is typically the first stage of the five stages of grief described by Elisabeth
Kübler-Ross, where the person refuses to believe they are dying.
2. When providing post-mortem care, the STNA should perform which action
first?
A. Respectfully position the body in normal alignment before rigor mortis sets in
B. Wrap the body in a shroud
C. Remove all medical tubes and IV lines immediately
D. Call the funeral home to pick up the resident
Answer: A
Rationale: The STNA should position the body in alignment and close the eyes/mouth
before rigor mortis occurs; nurses usually handle the removal of tubes depending on the
facility policy or coroner’s requirements.
,3. Which of the following senses is generally believed to be the last to leave a
person as they approach death?
A. Hearing
B. Touch
C. Taste
D. Sight
Answer: A
Rationale: Hearing is widely considered the last sense to fail, which is why STNAs are
encouraged to keep speaking to the resident in a comforting tone.
4. What is the primary goal of palliative care for a resident with a terminal
illness?
A. To find a surgical cure for the disease
B. To provide comfort, manage pain, and improve quality of life
C. To extend life at all costs using ventilators
D. To perform aggressive physical therapy to regain strength
Answer: B
Rationale: Palliative care focuses on comfort and symptom management rather than
curing the underlying disease.
5. A resident has a ‘DNR’ order. What does this mean for the STNA?
A. Do Not Resuscitate if the resident’s heart or breathing stops
B. Do Not Read medical charts to the resident
C. Do Not Restrict the resident’s diet
D. Department of Nursing Registry
Answer: A
Rationale: DNR stands for Do Not Resuscitate, meaning medical staff should not perform
CPR or advanced life support if the resident’s heart stops.
, 6. Which respiratory pattern is often observed in residents who are very close to
death, characterized by alternating periods of deep breathing and apnea?
A. Tachypnea
B. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
C. Bradypnea
D. Orthopnea
Answer: B
Rationale: Cheyne-Stokes breathing is a specific pattern of irregular breathing often seen
in the final stages of life.
7. When performing Passive Range of Motion (PROM) on a resident’s hip,
moving the leg away from the midline of the body is called:
A. Adduction
B. Abduction
C. Flexion
D. Extension
Answer: B
Rationale: Abduction is the movement of a limb away from the midline of the body.
8. To prevent ‘foot drop’ in a bedridden resident, the STNA should use:
A. A gait belt
B. A trochanter roll
C. A footboard
D. A bed cradle
Answer: C
Rationale: A footboard keeps the feet in a natural flexed position (dorsiflexion) to prevent
the permanent shortening of muscles known as foot drop.
