BSN 425 Exam 3: Gerontological Nursing Updated
and Verified Questions and Correct Answers -
Nightingale College (Version 4)
1. Which criteria must be met for a patient to qualify for hospice care under the
Medicare benefit?
A. The patient must agree to forego curative treatment for the terminal diagnosis.
B. The patient must have a terminal illness with a life expectancy of 12 months or less.
C. The patient must be confined to a bed and unable to perform ADLs.
D. The patient must be over the age of 65 and have no family caregivers.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: To qualify for hospice, a patient must be certified as terminally ill (life
expectancy of 6 months or less) and must waive the right to curative treatment for the
terminal illness.
2. A nurse is caring for an older adult with presbycusis. Which communication
technique is most effective?
A. Speaking in a very loud, high-pitched voice.
B. Standing behind the patient while speaking.
C. Facing the patient and speaking in a low-frequency tone.
D. Using complex medical terminology to ensure accuracy.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Presbycusis involves the loss of high-frequency sound perception. Facing the
patient allows for lip-reading cues, and low tones are easier to hear.
,3. An older adult patient is experiencing ‘sundowning.’ Which intervention
should the nurse implement first?
A. Administer a PRN dose of a sedative at 4:00 PM.
B. Increase environmental lighting and maintain a calm routine in the late afternoon.
C. Apply physical restraints to prevent wandering during the night.
D. Restrict fluid intake after dinner to prevent nocturia.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Sundowning is managed by minimizing environmental triggers, providing
adequate lighting to reduce shadows/confusion, and maintaining a consistent routine.
4. Which physiological change in the older adult increases the risk for drug
toxicity?
A. Increased total body water.
B. Increased glomerular filtration rate (GFR).
C. Decreased body fat percentage.
D. Decreased serum albumin levels.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Reduced albumin levels lead to fewer binding sites for protein-bound drugs,
resulting in higher levels of free (active) drug in the bloodstream.
5. What is the primary goal of palliative care?
A. To provide a cure for chronic underlying diseases.
B. To hasten the dying process for suffering patients.
C. To improve quality of life through symptom management and support.
D. To provide services only in the last 48 hours of life.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Palliative care focuses on relief of symptoms, pain, and stress of a serious
illness, regardless of the prognosis or treatment goals.
, 6. A patient’s daughter asks about ‘Beers Criteria.’ How should the nurse explain
its purpose?
A. It is a list of medications that are mandatory for all geriatric patients.
B. It is a scoring tool used to predict the risk of pressure ulcers.
C. It outlines the nutritional requirements for patients in long-term care.
D. It identifies medications that are potentially inappropriate for older adults.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The Beers Criteria is a guideline for healthcare professionals to help improve
the safety of prescribing medications for older adults.
7. Which symptom is considered a ‘hallmark’ of delirium in an older adult?
A. Acute onset of confusion and fluctuating levels of consciousness.
B. Persistent low mood and lack of interest in activities.
C. Gradual loss of short-term memory over several years.
D. Stable cognitive impairment with no changes in alertness.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Delirium is characterized by an acute, sudden change in mental status and a
fluctuating course, unlike the gradual decline of dementia.
8. An older adult has a diagnosis of Glaucoma. Which visual deficit does the
nurse expect?
A. Loss of central vision with intact peripheral vision.
B. Loss of peripheral vision (tunnel vision).
C. Clouding or opacity of the lens.
D. Complete blindness in one eye due to retinal detachment.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Glaucoma is characterized by increased intraocular pressure which typically
damages peripheral vision first.
and Verified Questions and Correct Answers -
Nightingale College (Version 4)
1. Which criteria must be met for a patient to qualify for hospice care under the
Medicare benefit?
A. The patient must agree to forego curative treatment for the terminal diagnosis.
B. The patient must have a terminal illness with a life expectancy of 12 months or less.
C. The patient must be confined to a bed and unable to perform ADLs.
D. The patient must be over the age of 65 and have no family caregivers.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: To qualify for hospice, a patient must be certified as terminally ill (life
expectancy of 6 months or less) and must waive the right to curative treatment for the
terminal illness.
2. A nurse is caring for an older adult with presbycusis. Which communication
technique is most effective?
A. Speaking in a very loud, high-pitched voice.
B. Standing behind the patient while speaking.
C. Facing the patient and speaking in a low-frequency tone.
D. Using complex medical terminology to ensure accuracy.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Presbycusis involves the loss of high-frequency sound perception. Facing the
patient allows for lip-reading cues, and low tones are easier to hear.
,3. An older adult patient is experiencing ‘sundowning.’ Which intervention
should the nurse implement first?
A. Administer a PRN dose of a sedative at 4:00 PM.
B. Increase environmental lighting and maintain a calm routine in the late afternoon.
C. Apply physical restraints to prevent wandering during the night.
D. Restrict fluid intake after dinner to prevent nocturia.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Sundowning is managed by minimizing environmental triggers, providing
adequate lighting to reduce shadows/confusion, and maintaining a consistent routine.
4. Which physiological change in the older adult increases the risk for drug
toxicity?
A. Increased total body water.
B. Increased glomerular filtration rate (GFR).
C. Decreased body fat percentage.
D. Decreased serum albumin levels.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Reduced albumin levels lead to fewer binding sites for protein-bound drugs,
resulting in higher levels of free (active) drug in the bloodstream.
5. What is the primary goal of palliative care?
A. To provide a cure for chronic underlying diseases.
B. To hasten the dying process for suffering patients.
C. To improve quality of life through symptom management and support.
D. To provide services only in the last 48 hours of life.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Palliative care focuses on relief of symptoms, pain, and stress of a serious
illness, regardless of the prognosis or treatment goals.
, 6. A patient’s daughter asks about ‘Beers Criteria.’ How should the nurse explain
its purpose?
A. It is a list of medications that are mandatory for all geriatric patients.
B. It is a scoring tool used to predict the risk of pressure ulcers.
C. It outlines the nutritional requirements for patients in long-term care.
D. It identifies medications that are potentially inappropriate for older adults.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The Beers Criteria is a guideline for healthcare professionals to help improve
the safety of prescribing medications for older adults.
7. Which symptom is considered a ‘hallmark’ of delirium in an older adult?
A. Acute onset of confusion and fluctuating levels of consciousness.
B. Persistent low mood and lack of interest in activities.
C. Gradual loss of short-term memory over several years.
D. Stable cognitive impairment with no changes in alertness.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Delirium is characterized by an acute, sudden change in mental status and a
fluctuating course, unlike the gradual decline of dementia.
8. An older adult has a diagnosis of Glaucoma. Which visual deficit does the
nurse expect?
A. Loss of central vision with intact peripheral vision.
B. Loss of peripheral vision (tunnel vision).
C. Clouding or opacity of the lens.
D. Complete blindness in one eye due to retinal detachment.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Glaucoma is characterized by increased intraocular pressure which typically
damages peripheral vision first.
