NURS 3632 EXAM 2 | QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT
ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES | LATEST UPDATE
GRADED A+
1. Which of the following is the primary function of the renal system?
A. Blood filtration
B. Hormone secretion
C. Nutrient absorption
D. Immune defense
Answer: A
Rationale: The renal system filters blood to remove waste products and maintain fluid and
electrolyte balance.
2. A patient with chronic kidney disease presents with fatigue and pallor. Which lab
value is most likely altered?
A. Sodium
B. Hemoglobin
C. Glucose
D. Bilirubin
Answer: B
Rationale: Chronic kidney disease can lead to decreased erythropoietin production, resulting
in anemia.
3. Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with chronic kidney
disease?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Hyponatremia
D. Hypermagnesemia
Answer: C
Rationale: Impaired kidney function reduces sodium reabsorption, contributing to
hyponatremia in some CKD patients.
4. Which assessment finding indicates early fluid overload?
A. Dry mucous membranes
B. Jugular vein distention
C. Hypotension
D. Oliguria
Answer: B
Rationale: Jugular vein distention is an early sign of fluid overload and increased central
venous pressure.
,5. Which intervention is essential for a patient with acute kidney injury?
A. Encourage unrestricted fluid intake
B. Monitor urine output closely
C. Administer high-dose diuretics routinely
D. Restrict protein intake drastically
Answer: C
Rationale: Diuretics may be used to manage fluid overload, but high-dose administration
requires careful monitoring.
6. A patient with chronic kidney disease develops pruritus and bone pain. Which lab
abnormality is likely contributing?
A. Hypercalcemia
B. Hyperphosphatemia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypernatremia
Answer: B
Rationale: Elevated phosphate stimulates secondary hyperparathyroidism, leading to bone
pain and pruritus.
7. Which of the following medications is nephrotoxic and should be used cautiously in
kidney disease?
A. Acetaminophen
B. Ibuprofen
C. Lisinopril
D. Furosemide
Answer: D
Rationale: Loop diuretics can cause dehydration and electrolyte imbalance if misused,
contributing to kidney injury.
8. What is the primary purpose of hemodialysis?
A. Stimulate erythropoietin production
B. Remove waste products and excess fluid
C. Treat hyperglycemia
D. Prevent infections
Answer: B
Rationale: Hemodialysis filters blood to remove toxins and manage fluid and electrolyte
balance.
9. Which dietary modification is recommended for a patient with end-stage renal
disease?
A. High-potassium diet
B. Low-protein diet
C. High-sodium diet
D. Low-phosphate diet
Answer: D
,Rationale: Restricting phosphate helps prevent secondary hyperparathyroidism and bone
disease.
10. Which symptom is characteristic of uremia?
A. Fever
B. Nausea and vomiting
C. Bradycardia
D. Hyperactivity
Answer: B
Rationale: Accumulation of urea and other toxins causes gastrointestinal symptoms like
nausea and vomiting.
11. A patient receiving peritoneal dialysis reports cloudy effluent. What is the priority
nursing action?
A. Continue dialysis
B. Notify the healthcare provider
C. Administer analgesics
D. Encourage oral fluids
Answer: B
Rationale: Cloudy effluent is a sign of peritonitis, requiring immediate medical attention.
12. Which of the following is an expected finding in nephrotic syndrome?
A. Proteinuria
B. Hematuria
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hyperglycemia
Answer: A
Rationale: Nephrotic syndrome causes significant protein loss in urine, leading to
hypoalbuminemia and edema.
13. A patient with polycystic kidney disease is at highest risk for which complication?
A. Hypertension
B. Hypotension
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Hyperthyroidism
Answer: A
Rationale: Cyst growth compresses renal vessels, activating the renin-angiotensin system and
causing hypertension.
14. Which type of urinary incontinence is associated with sudden, strong urges to void?
A. Stress incontinence
B. Urge incontinence
C. Overflow incontinence
D. Functional incontinence
Answer: B
, Rationale: Urge incontinence is characterized by an abrupt need to urinate due to detrusor
overactivity.
15. Which nursing intervention helps prevent catheter-associated urinary tract
infections?
A. Frequent catheter irrigation
B. Proper hand hygiene and catheter care
C. Administering prophylactic antibiotics routinely
D. Increasing fluid intake only
Answer: B
Rationale: Proper hygiene and catheter maintenance prevent CAUTIs.
16. A patient with chronic kidney disease has hyperkalemia. Which ECG change is
expected?
A. ST-segment elevation
B. Peaked T waves
C. Prolonged QT interval
D. Bradyarrhythmia only
Answer: B
Rationale: Hyperkalemia causes characteristic peaked T waves and can progress to
arrhythmias.
17. Which lab finding indicates metabolic acidosis in kidney disease?
A. pH 7.32, HCO₃⁻ 18 mEq/L
B. pH 7.45, HCO₃⁻ 28 mEq/L
C. pH 7.50, HCO₃⁻ 22 mEq/L
D. pH 7.38, HCO₃⁻ 24 mEq/L
Answer: A
Rationale: Low pH and low bicarbonate indicate metabolic acidosis, common in CKD.
18. Which symptom is commonly associated with acute glomerulonephritis?
A. Hematuria
B. Polyuria
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Weight loss
Answer: A
Rationale: Glomerular inflammation leads to red blood cell leakage into urine, causing
hematuria.
19. A patient with kidney disease is prescribed erythropoietin. What is the expected
effect?
A. Increase potassium excretion
B. Increase red blood cell production
C. Decrease blood pressure
D. Reduce proteinuria
Answer: B
ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES | LATEST UPDATE
GRADED A+
1. Which of the following is the primary function of the renal system?
A. Blood filtration
B. Hormone secretion
C. Nutrient absorption
D. Immune defense
Answer: A
Rationale: The renal system filters blood to remove waste products and maintain fluid and
electrolyte balance.
2. A patient with chronic kidney disease presents with fatigue and pallor. Which lab
value is most likely altered?
A. Sodium
B. Hemoglobin
C. Glucose
D. Bilirubin
Answer: B
Rationale: Chronic kidney disease can lead to decreased erythropoietin production, resulting
in anemia.
3. Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with chronic kidney
disease?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Hyponatremia
D. Hypermagnesemia
Answer: C
Rationale: Impaired kidney function reduces sodium reabsorption, contributing to
hyponatremia in some CKD patients.
4. Which assessment finding indicates early fluid overload?
A. Dry mucous membranes
B. Jugular vein distention
C. Hypotension
D. Oliguria
Answer: B
Rationale: Jugular vein distention is an early sign of fluid overload and increased central
venous pressure.
,5. Which intervention is essential for a patient with acute kidney injury?
A. Encourage unrestricted fluid intake
B. Monitor urine output closely
C. Administer high-dose diuretics routinely
D. Restrict protein intake drastically
Answer: C
Rationale: Diuretics may be used to manage fluid overload, but high-dose administration
requires careful monitoring.
6. A patient with chronic kidney disease develops pruritus and bone pain. Which lab
abnormality is likely contributing?
A. Hypercalcemia
B. Hyperphosphatemia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypernatremia
Answer: B
Rationale: Elevated phosphate stimulates secondary hyperparathyroidism, leading to bone
pain and pruritus.
7. Which of the following medications is nephrotoxic and should be used cautiously in
kidney disease?
A. Acetaminophen
B. Ibuprofen
C. Lisinopril
D. Furosemide
Answer: D
Rationale: Loop diuretics can cause dehydration and electrolyte imbalance if misused,
contributing to kidney injury.
8. What is the primary purpose of hemodialysis?
A. Stimulate erythropoietin production
B. Remove waste products and excess fluid
C. Treat hyperglycemia
D. Prevent infections
Answer: B
Rationale: Hemodialysis filters blood to remove toxins and manage fluid and electrolyte
balance.
9. Which dietary modification is recommended for a patient with end-stage renal
disease?
A. High-potassium diet
B. Low-protein diet
C. High-sodium diet
D. Low-phosphate diet
Answer: D
,Rationale: Restricting phosphate helps prevent secondary hyperparathyroidism and bone
disease.
10. Which symptom is characteristic of uremia?
A. Fever
B. Nausea and vomiting
C. Bradycardia
D. Hyperactivity
Answer: B
Rationale: Accumulation of urea and other toxins causes gastrointestinal symptoms like
nausea and vomiting.
11. A patient receiving peritoneal dialysis reports cloudy effluent. What is the priority
nursing action?
A. Continue dialysis
B. Notify the healthcare provider
C. Administer analgesics
D. Encourage oral fluids
Answer: B
Rationale: Cloudy effluent is a sign of peritonitis, requiring immediate medical attention.
12. Which of the following is an expected finding in nephrotic syndrome?
A. Proteinuria
B. Hematuria
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hyperglycemia
Answer: A
Rationale: Nephrotic syndrome causes significant protein loss in urine, leading to
hypoalbuminemia and edema.
13. A patient with polycystic kidney disease is at highest risk for which complication?
A. Hypertension
B. Hypotension
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Hyperthyroidism
Answer: A
Rationale: Cyst growth compresses renal vessels, activating the renin-angiotensin system and
causing hypertension.
14. Which type of urinary incontinence is associated with sudden, strong urges to void?
A. Stress incontinence
B. Urge incontinence
C. Overflow incontinence
D. Functional incontinence
Answer: B
, Rationale: Urge incontinence is characterized by an abrupt need to urinate due to detrusor
overactivity.
15. Which nursing intervention helps prevent catheter-associated urinary tract
infections?
A. Frequent catheter irrigation
B. Proper hand hygiene and catheter care
C. Administering prophylactic antibiotics routinely
D. Increasing fluid intake only
Answer: B
Rationale: Proper hygiene and catheter maintenance prevent CAUTIs.
16. A patient with chronic kidney disease has hyperkalemia. Which ECG change is
expected?
A. ST-segment elevation
B. Peaked T waves
C. Prolonged QT interval
D. Bradyarrhythmia only
Answer: B
Rationale: Hyperkalemia causes characteristic peaked T waves and can progress to
arrhythmias.
17. Which lab finding indicates metabolic acidosis in kidney disease?
A. pH 7.32, HCO₃⁻ 18 mEq/L
B. pH 7.45, HCO₃⁻ 28 mEq/L
C. pH 7.50, HCO₃⁻ 22 mEq/L
D. pH 7.38, HCO₃⁻ 24 mEq/L
Answer: A
Rationale: Low pH and low bicarbonate indicate metabolic acidosis, common in CKD.
18. Which symptom is commonly associated with acute glomerulonephritis?
A. Hematuria
B. Polyuria
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Weight loss
Answer: A
Rationale: Glomerular inflammation leads to red blood cell leakage into urine, causing
hematuria.
19. A patient with kidney disease is prescribed erythropoietin. What is the expected
effect?
A. Increase potassium excretion
B. Increase red blood cell production
C. Decrease blood pressure
D. Reduce proteinuria
Answer: B
