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NCCER questions And Answers Verified
for Grade A+ Results 2025!!
nursing (Chamberlain University)
, dycloc
k
tu
CEA PREP: FULL PRACTICE EXAM
S
QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT
VERIFIED ANSWERS A+ GRADED
,The patient is exhibiting a productive cough and a low-grade fever. Chest X-ray on
PA view shows a left lower chest area of consolidation adjacent to the left border
of the heart approximately 2 rib spaces above the costophrenic angle. The lateral
x-ray view shows this lesion absent from the window posterior to the cardiac
silhouette. Which is the most likely location of this area of focal consolidation?
*Left upper lobe apex
Studyclo
*Right middle lobe
*Left upper lobe lingula
*Left lower lobe - ANS Left upper lobe lingula
Rationale: Lingular consolidation is described in this question precisely. If the
cardiac margin/silhouette is obliterated by the mass, the lesion is either right middle
lobe or left upper lobe lingula.
The inability to fully relax the myocardium during relaxation is a trademark of which
ck
of the following diagnoses? - ANS Diastolic dysfunction
Rationale: The inability for the heart to relax is a trademark of the diagnosis of
diastolic dysfunction and is common in patients with thickened hypertrophic
myocardium.
An otherwise healthy African American adult male has been diagnosed with
hypertension. He has been restricting his salt intake, eating a DASH (Dietary
Approaches to Stop Hypertension) diet, and exercising more, but his blood pressure
is still elevated. Which is the BEST medication to prescribe him? - ANS Calcium
channel blocker
Rationale: African American patients per JNC8 Hypertension Guidelines should be
managed with a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker such as amlodipine
(Norvasc) as first line management therapy for hypertension not at goal with DASH
and lifestyle modifications.
Your patient has been diagnosed with a 4.5cm ascending aortic aneurysm. Which
medical imaging is considered standard of care for serial surveillance? - ANS CT
angiography of the chest
Rationale: CT angiography is considered the standard of care for measuring vascular
luminal dimensions with contrast. CT PE protocol is not timed properly for the aorta
(it's timed for the pulmonary artery). Although a plain film is able to catch large
aneurysms at times, they are not able to provide multi-axis reconstruction needed
to accurately measure the size.
Transesophageal echo is not needed to accurately measure the aorta and requires
the patient to undergo sedation which is unnecessary.
Which of the following medications does not cause beta 1 stimulation? - ANS
phenylephrine Rationale: Phenylephrine only stimulates alpha 1 receptors. The
remaining three all have beta receptor activity.
A 50-year-old woman with a history of hypertension presents with dyspnea on
exertion and orthopnea. On examination, she has jugular venous distention and
bilateral crackles on lung auscultation. What is the most likely diagnosis? - ANS
, Congestive heart failure
NCCER questions And Answers Verified
for Grade A+ Results 2025!!
nursing (Chamberlain University)
, dycloc
k
tu
CEA PREP: FULL PRACTICE EXAM
S
QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT
VERIFIED ANSWERS A+ GRADED
,The patient is exhibiting a productive cough and a low-grade fever. Chest X-ray on
PA view shows a left lower chest area of consolidation adjacent to the left border
of the heart approximately 2 rib spaces above the costophrenic angle. The lateral
x-ray view shows this lesion absent from the window posterior to the cardiac
silhouette. Which is the most likely location of this area of focal consolidation?
*Left upper lobe apex
Studyclo
*Right middle lobe
*Left upper lobe lingula
*Left lower lobe - ANS Left upper lobe lingula
Rationale: Lingular consolidation is described in this question precisely. If the
cardiac margin/silhouette is obliterated by the mass, the lesion is either right middle
lobe or left upper lobe lingula.
The inability to fully relax the myocardium during relaxation is a trademark of which
ck
of the following diagnoses? - ANS Diastolic dysfunction
Rationale: The inability for the heart to relax is a trademark of the diagnosis of
diastolic dysfunction and is common in patients with thickened hypertrophic
myocardium.
An otherwise healthy African American adult male has been diagnosed with
hypertension. He has been restricting his salt intake, eating a DASH (Dietary
Approaches to Stop Hypertension) diet, and exercising more, but his blood pressure
is still elevated. Which is the BEST medication to prescribe him? - ANS Calcium
channel blocker
Rationale: African American patients per JNC8 Hypertension Guidelines should be
managed with a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker such as amlodipine
(Norvasc) as first line management therapy for hypertension not at goal with DASH
and lifestyle modifications.
Your patient has been diagnosed with a 4.5cm ascending aortic aneurysm. Which
medical imaging is considered standard of care for serial surveillance? - ANS CT
angiography of the chest
Rationale: CT angiography is considered the standard of care for measuring vascular
luminal dimensions with contrast. CT PE protocol is not timed properly for the aorta
(it's timed for the pulmonary artery). Although a plain film is able to catch large
aneurysms at times, they are not able to provide multi-axis reconstruction needed
to accurately measure the size.
Transesophageal echo is not needed to accurately measure the aorta and requires
the patient to undergo sedation which is unnecessary.
Which of the following medications does not cause beta 1 stimulation? - ANS
phenylephrine Rationale: Phenylephrine only stimulates alpha 1 receptors. The
remaining three all have beta receptor activity.
A 50-year-old woman with a history of hypertension presents with dyspnea on
exertion and orthopnea. On examination, she has jugular venous distention and
bilateral crackles on lung auscultation. What is the most likely diagnosis? - ANS
, Congestive heart failure
