Evolve HESI 1 EXAM 2025 | ACTUAL REAL EXAM ACCURATE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES | VERIFIED AND LATEST UPDATED |GUARANTEED PASS

What is a mediastinoscopy? A. Radiographic image of the mediastinum B. Endoscopic visual examination of the mediastinum through a suprasternal incision for inspection or biopsy of lymph nodes C. Surgical removal of the mediastinum D. Visual exam of only the trachea and esophagus Correct Answer: B Rationale: Mediastinoscopy involves inserting an endoscope through a suprasternal incision to inspect and biopsy mediastinal lymph nodes and structures. Which structures are examined in a mediastinoscopy? A. Only the lungs and bronchi B. Heart, trachea, esophagus, bronchus, thymus, and lymph nodes C. Only the esophagus and thymus D. Only lymph nodes Correct Answer: B Rationale: A mediastinoscopy allows visualization of multiple mediastinal structures, including the heart, trachea, esophagus, bronchus, thymus, and lymph nodes. A pulmonologist performs a bronchoscopy with biopsy and obtains lung parenchyma tissue through the bronchial wall. What type of biopsy was performed? A. Open lung biopsy B. Transbronchial biopsy C. Needle aspiration biopsy D. Thoracentesis biopsy Correct Answer: B Rationale: A transbronchial biopsy involves passing tools through the bronchoscope to obtain lung tissue by perforating the bronchial wall. What does tomography produce? A. A complete body scan B. A radiographic image of a selected slice of tissue C. A 3D printed model of an organ D. A blood vessel image Correct Answer: B Rationale: Tomography provides a radiographic image of a specific layer or section of tissue. What is a common complication of isocarboxazid (MAOI) overdose? A. Bradycardia B. Circulatory collapse C. Hypoglycemia D. Respiratory alkalosis Correct Answer: B Rationale: MAOI overdose can cause severe cardiovascular effects, including circulatory collapse. Who is a health care proxy? A. The hospital administrator B. A person chosen to make medical decisions for another when they cannot C. The attending physician D. A court-appointed guardian only Correct Answer: B Rationale: A health care proxy is legally designated to make medical decisions if the patient becomes incapacitated. Which ethical principle ensures that a patient has the right to refuse medical treatment? A. Justice B. Autonomy C. Beneficence D. Nonmaleficence Correct Answer: B Rationale: Autonomy protects a patient's right to make decisions about their own healthcare, including refusal of treatment. What is hypophysectomy? A. Surgical removal of the thymus gland B. Surgical removal of the pituitary gland C. Surgical removal of the hypothalamus D. Surgical removal of the adrenal gland Correct Answer: B Rationale: Hypophysectomy refers to the surgical removal of the pituitary gland. What are Korotkoff sounds? A. Sounds of the heart valves closing B. Series of sounds heard during blood pressure measurement caused by arterial distention as cuff pressure changes C. Sounds heard during lung auscultation D. Sounds produced by gastrointestinal movement Correct Answer: B Rationale: Korotkoff sounds occur due to changes in blood flow through an artery as cuff pressure is released during BP measurement. What is a negative airflow room used for? A. Clients with immune deficiency B. Clients with tuberculosis C. Clients with heart failure D. Clients recovering from surgery Correct Answer: B Rationale: Negative airflow rooms prevent airborne pathogens from escaping into hallways, crucial for TB isolation. Who is responsible for controlled substance issues on a nursing unit? A. Pharmacist B. Nursing Unit Manager C. Staff nurse D. Hospital security Correct Answer: B Rationale: The Nursing Unit Manager oversees controlled substance management, documentation, and compliance. Which care service is expected for a client discharged with an infusion device? A. Outpatient therapy B. Home care C. Inpatient follow-up D. Urgent care visits Correct Answer: B Rationale: Home care nurses assist clients in managing infusion devices at home; outpatient therapy is not typically used for this. How should a nurse evaluate the effectiveness of teaching a family member to administer SQ enoxaparin? A. Ask the family to explain the steps verbally B. Provide written instructions C. Observe the family member giving the injection D. Have them sign a teaching form Correct Answer: C Rationale: Direct observation ensures correct administration technique and confirms learning. According to Elisabeth Kübler-Ross, what are the five stages of grief? A. Denial, bargaining, depression, acceptance, confusion B. Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance C. Shock, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance D. Shock, denial, anger, depression, acceptance Correct Answer: B Rationale: The recognized stages are denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance. Which autosomal recessive disorder is characterized by thick mucus gland secretions, elevated sweat electrolytes, meconium ileus, and difficulty gaining weight? A. Phenylketonuria B. Cystic fibrosis C. Sickle cell anemia D. Tay-Sachs disease Correct Answer: B Rationale: Cystic fibrosis involves defective chloride channels, leading to thick secretions and high sweat chloride. What is meconium ileus? A. Green vomit in a newborn B. Impacted stool in a newborn C. Delayed passage of urine D. Enlarged liver in a newborn Correct Answer: B Rationale: Meconium ileus is a bowel obstruction in newborns caused by abnormally thick meconium, often linked to cystic fibrosis. What is cerebral palsy (CP)? A. Brain infection causing seizures B. Motor disorder caused by brain damage C. Loss of memory from brain injury D. Progressive nerve degeneration Correct Answer: B Rationale: CP is a non-progressive motor disorder resulting from brain damage, affecting movement and coordination. What is multiple sclerosis (MS)? A. Autoimmune destruction of muscle fibers B. Chronic degenerative disease with demyelination in the CNS replaced by sclerotic tissue C. Inherited muscle weakness disorder D. CNS infection from viruses Correct Answer: B Rationale: MS involves immune-mediated destruction of myelin in the CNS, forming plaques and causing fluctuating neurological symptoms. For intensive care of cancer clients, which nurse would a facility hire? A. Nurse practitioner B. Clinical nurse specialist C. Nurse educator D. Nurse administrator Correct Answer: B Rationale: A clinical nurse specialist has expertise in a specific setting, such as oncology intensive care. In which setting does a nurse practitioner typically work? A. Operating room B. Outpatient, ambulatory, or community care setting C. Intensive care unit only D. Laboratory services Correct Answer: B Rationale: Nurse practitioners provide care primarily in outpatient and community-based settings. What is the primary role of a nurse administrator? A. Perform bedside care for patients B. Manage care provided within a healthcare agency C. Conduct nursing research D. Provide anesthesia Correct Answer: B Rationale: Nurse administrators oversee healthcare delivery, staffing, budgeting, and policy compliance. Medicare Part A covers which types of costs? A. Prescription drugs only B. Preventive screening only C. Medical, surgical, and psychiatric inpatient costs D. Home modifications Correct Answer: C Rationale: Medicare Part A covers inpatient hospital, psychiatric, and surgical expenses. What do Managed Care Organizations (MCOs) provide? A. Services to anyone regardless of enrollment B. Comprehensive preventive and treatment services for enrolled members C. Only emergency services D. Free services for uninsured clients Correct Answer: B Rationale: MCOs contract with providers to offer coordinated preventive and treatment services to voluntarily enrolled individuals. What is the purpose of Preferred Care Organizations (PCOs)? A. Provide unlimited choice of providers B. Narrow the list of hospitals, primary care providers, and specialists available to members C. Offer free health services D. Eliminate the need for insurance Correct Answer: B Rationale: PCOs limit provider networks to reduce costs and coordinate care. What is the expected respiratory rate for a 2-year-old toddler? A. 15 rpm B. 30 rpm C. 50 rpm D. 40 rpm Correct Answer: B Rationale: Normal toddler respiratory rate is about 25–32 breaths per minute; 30 is average. What is the normal respiratory rate for adolescents and adults? A. 12–20 rpm B. 20–30 rpm C. 8–14 rpm D. 25–32 rpm Correct Answer: A Rationale: Normal adult and adolescent respiratory rate is 12–20 breaths per minute.