ESTUDYR
RN PHARMACOLOGY A RELIAS MOST TESTED QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS GRADED A+ WITH RATIONALES
What medication is a leukotriene receptor antagonist?
A. Zafirlukast
B. Montelukast
C. Omalizumab
D. Salmeterol
Rationale: Montelukast blocks leukotriene D4 receptors, reducing inflammation in asthma and allergic
rhinitis.
Which statement made by a patient taking hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) is correct?
A. “I can skip my potassium supplement.”
B. “I should take extra care when standing up or changing positions.”
C. “I’ll add extra salt to my diet.”
D. “I don’t need to monitor my blood pressure.”
Rationale: HCTZ causes diuresis and orthostatic hypotension; patients must rise slowly to avoid
dizziness.
A 250 mg oral dose is ordered, and the supply is 100 mg tablets. How many tablets do you
administer?
A. 1 tablet
B. 2 tablets
C. 2.5 tablets
D. 3 tablets
Rationale: 250 mg ÷ 100 mg/tablet = 2.5 tablets.
Which medication is a potassium-sparing diuretic?
A. Furosemide
B. Hydrochlorothiazide
C. Spironolactone
D. Metolazone
Rationale: Spironolactone antagonizes aldosterone, reducing K⁺ excretion.
A patient develops flushing, pruritus, and hypotension during a rapid IV vancomycin infusion. What
is this?
A. Anaphylaxis
B. Serum sickness
C. Red man syndrome
D. Stevens–Johnson syndrome
Rationale: Rapid vancomycin infusion can release histamine, causing “red man” symptoms.
, ESTUDYR
Which drug would you question if prescribed for a patient taking sildenafil (Viagra)?
A. Amlodipine
B. Tadalafil
C. Nitroglycerin
D. Atenolol
Rationale: Nitrates plus PDE-5 inhibitors can cause life-threatening hypotension.
A patient’s capillary glucose is 33 mg/dL and they can’t take oral carbs. You would administer:
A. Glucagon IM
B. Regular insulin
C. Dextrose 50% IV push
D. Lactated Ringer’s
Rationale: IV D50 rapidly raises blood glucose in severe hypoglycemia.
An order reads “Insulin glargine 10 U subQ QD.” To avoid dangerous abbreviations you would write:
A. 10 U SC daily
B. 10 units subcutaneously daily
C. 10 units subcutaneous once daily
D. 10 unit SQ every day
Rationale: Spelling out “units,” “subcutaneous,” and “daily” prevents misinterpretation.
Which patient statement indicates a need for further education about warfarin?
A. “I’ll get my INR checked regularly.”
B. “I’ll maintain my green leafy vegetable intake.”
C. “I should report any unusual bleeding.”
D. “If I get headaches, aspirin is my best option for pain.”
Rationale: Aspirin increases bleeding risk and should be avoided or used cautiously.
A patient allergic to penicillin should not receive:
A. Azithromycin
B. Vancomycin
C. Ceftriaxone
D. Clindamycin
Rationale: Cephalosporins can cross-react in penicillin-allergic patients.
Heparin drip at 18 U/kg/hr for a 75 kg patient: the bag has 25,000 U in 500 mL. What is the mL/hr
rate?
A. 15 mL/hr
B. 25 mL/hr
C. 27 mL/hr
D. 30 mL/hr
Rationale: Dose = 18 × 75 = 1350 U/hr; concentration = 25,000 U/500 mL = 50 U/mL; rate = 1350/50 =
27 mL/hr.
RN PHARMACOLOGY A RELIAS MOST TESTED QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS GRADED A+ WITH RATIONALES
What medication is a leukotriene receptor antagonist?
A. Zafirlukast
B. Montelukast
C. Omalizumab
D. Salmeterol
Rationale: Montelukast blocks leukotriene D4 receptors, reducing inflammation in asthma and allergic
rhinitis.
Which statement made by a patient taking hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) is correct?
A. “I can skip my potassium supplement.”
B. “I should take extra care when standing up or changing positions.”
C. “I’ll add extra salt to my diet.”
D. “I don’t need to monitor my blood pressure.”
Rationale: HCTZ causes diuresis and orthostatic hypotension; patients must rise slowly to avoid
dizziness.
A 250 mg oral dose is ordered, and the supply is 100 mg tablets. How many tablets do you
administer?
A. 1 tablet
B. 2 tablets
C. 2.5 tablets
D. 3 tablets
Rationale: 250 mg ÷ 100 mg/tablet = 2.5 tablets.
Which medication is a potassium-sparing diuretic?
A. Furosemide
B. Hydrochlorothiazide
C. Spironolactone
D. Metolazone
Rationale: Spironolactone antagonizes aldosterone, reducing K⁺ excretion.
A patient develops flushing, pruritus, and hypotension during a rapid IV vancomycin infusion. What
is this?
A. Anaphylaxis
B. Serum sickness
C. Red man syndrome
D. Stevens–Johnson syndrome
Rationale: Rapid vancomycin infusion can release histamine, causing “red man” symptoms.
, ESTUDYR
Which drug would you question if prescribed for a patient taking sildenafil (Viagra)?
A. Amlodipine
B. Tadalafil
C. Nitroglycerin
D. Atenolol
Rationale: Nitrates plus PDE-5 inhibitors can cause life-threatening hypotension.
A patient’s capillary glucose is 33 mg/dL and they can’t take oral carbs. You would administer:
A. Glucagon IM
B. Regular insulin
C. Dextrose 50% IV push
D. Lactated Ringer’s
Rationale: IV D50 rapidly raises blood glucose in severe hypoglycemia.
An order reads “Insulin glargine 10 U subQ QD.” To avoid dangerous abbreviations you would write:
A. 10 U SC daily
B. 10 units subcutaneously daily
C. 10 units subcutaneous once daily
D. 10 unit SQ every day
Rationale: Spelling out “units,” “subcutaneous,” and “daily” prevents misinterpretation.
Which patient statement indicates a need for further education about warfarin?
A. “I’ll get my INR checked regularly.”
B. “I’ll maintain my green leafy vegetable intake.”
C. “I should report any unusual bleeding.”
D. “If I get headaches, aspirin is my best option for pain.”
Rationale: Aspirin increases bleeding risk and should be avoided or used cautiously.
A patient allergic to penicillin should not receive:
A. Azithromycin
B. Vancomycin
C. Ceftriaxone
D. Clindamycin
Rationale: Cephalosporins can cross-react in penicillin-allergic patients.
Heparin drip at 18 U/kg/hr for a 75 kg patient: the bag has 25,000 U in 500 mL. What is the mL/hr
rate?
A. 15 mL/hr
B. 25 mL/hr
C. 27 mL/hr
D. 30 mL/hr
Rationale: Dose = 18 × 75 = 1350 U/hr; concentration = 25,000 U/500 mL = 50 U/mL; rate = 1350/50 =
27 mL/hr.
