2025/2026 | Multidimensional Care III (MDC 3)
| Rasmussen | Verified Questions and Answers |
A+ Graded
Section 1: Introduction
This document contains the complete and verified final exam content for NUR 2502 –
Multidimensional Care III (MDC 3) at Rasmussen University, covering the 2025/2026
academic year. It includes exam-style questions and 100% correct answers based on topics
such as neurological disorders, oncology, burns, critical care, cardiovascular conditions,
endocrine emergencies, and advanced clinical reasoning. This A+ graded exam resource
reflects Rasmussen’s MDC 3 curriculum and provides students with trusted preparation for
achieving final exam success.
Section 2: Exam Questions and Answers
Format: Multiple-choice questions
Four answer choices per question (A–D)
Correct answer highlighted
1. What is the primary initial intervention for a patient experiencing a generalized
tonic-clonic seizure?
A) Administer intravenous diazepam
B) Ensure a safe environment and protect from injury
C) Insert an oral airway to maintain ventilation
D) Administer oxygen via nasal cannula
B) Ensure a safe environment and protect from injury
2. Which assessment finding is most indicative of increased intracranial pressure
(ICP) in a patient with a traumatic brain injury?
A) Bradycardia and widened pulse pressure
B) Hypertension and tachypnea
C) Decreased respiratory rate and pupil dilation
D) Normal vital signs with headache
A) Bradycardia and widened pulse pressure
3. A patient with newly diagnosed breast cancer asks about treatment options.
What is the nurse’s best response?
A) Surgery is the only effective treatment
B) Chemotherapy and radiation are typically combined with surgery
C) Hormonal therapy is sufficient for all cases
D) Observation is the standard approach
B) Chemotherapy and radiation are typically combined with surgery
4. What is the priority nursing action for a patient with a partial-thickness burn
covering 20% of total body surface area (TBSA)?
, A) Administer pain medication
B) Initiate fluid resuscitation with lactated Ringer’s
C) Apply silver sulfadiazine cream immediately
D) Perform wound debridement
B) Initiate fluid resuscitation with lactated Ringer’s
5. A patient in critical care develops sudden hypotension and tachycardia. What is
the most likely cause?
A) Hypoglycemia
B) Septic shock
C) Pulmonary embolism
D) Dehydration
B) Septic shock
6. Which electrocardiogram (ECG) change is most characteristic of an acute
myocardial infarction?
A) Prolonged PR interval
B) ST-segment elevation
C) Widened QRS complex
D) Inverted T waves
B) ST-segment elevation
7. A patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) presents with fruity breath and
Kussmaul respirations. What is the nurse’s priority intervention?
A) Administer regular insulin intravenously
B) Provide oxygen therapy
C) Initiate fluid replacement with normal saline
D) Administer sodium bicarbonate
C) Initiate fluid replacement with normal saline
8. What is the most appropriate initial step in managing a patient with a suspected
stroke?
A) Administer tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)
B) Perform a non-contrast CT scan of the head
C) Start anticoagulation therapy
D) Initiate physical therapy
B) Perform a non-contrast CT scan of the head
9. A patient with a stage IV pressure ulcer develops a fever. What is the nurse’s
priority action?
A) Apply a topical antibiotic
B) Obtain a wound culture
C) Increase protein intake
D) Reposition every 4 hours
B) Obtain a wound culture
10. Which intervention is most effective in preventing ventilator-associated
pneumonia (VAP) in a critically ill patient?
A) Administer prophylactic antibiotics
B) Elevate the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees
C) Increase sedation to reduce coughing
D) Perform frequent suctioning
B) Elevate the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees
11. A patient with leukemia is at risk for tumor lysis syndrome. What should the
nurse monitor?
A) Serum calcium levels