NSG_5003__Advanced_Pathophysiology_Exam_3_Practice_Questions With 100% Correct & Verified Answers

NSG 5003 | NSG5003- Advanced Pathophysiology Exam 3 practice questions The primary characteristic that differentiates the immune response from other protective mechanisms is that the immune response is: specific to the antigen that initiates it. B lymphocytes mature and undergo changes that commit them to becoming B cells in the: bone marrow. What is the term for the process in which lymphoid stem cells migrate from the bone marrow to the central lymphoid organs (the thymus or bone marrow) where they undergo cellular changes into either immunocompetent T cells or immunocompetent B cells? Generation of clonal diversity Which type of immunity is produced by an individual after either natural exposure to the antigen or after immunization against the antigen? Active acquired What type of immunity is produced when an immunoglobulin crosses the placenta? Passive acquired The portion of the antigen that is configured for recognition and binding is called an antigenic determinant or a(n): epitope The most important determinant of immunogenicity is the antigen's: foreignness Antibodies are produced in: plasma cells Which immunoglobulin is present in blood, saliva, breast milk, and respiratory secretions? IgA Which antibody indicates a typical primary immune response? IgMIf a person had very low levels of Ig , that individual is more susceptible to infections of mucous membranes. A Which are characteristics of the generation of clonal diversity? The process takes place in the primary (central) lymphoid organs (i.e., thymus and bone marrow). Which is an example of an endogenous antigen? Cancer cells Hypersensitivity is best defined as a(n): altered immunologic response to an antigen that results in disease. The hypersensitivity reaction that occurs after a person who is allergic to bee stings is stung by a bee is called: anaphylaxis Common hay fever allergy is expressed through a reaction that is mediated by: IgE The class of antibody involved in type I hypersensitivity reactions is: IgE Blood transfusion reactions are an example of: alloimmunity During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, which leukocyte is activated? Eosinophils During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, what causes bronchospasm? Smooth muscle contraction caused by histamine bound to H1 receptors What is a characteristic of atopic individuals who are genetically predisposed to develop allergies? They produce greater quantities of IgE than other individuals. What is the mechanism in type II hypersensitivity reactions? Antibodies bind to the antigens on the cell surface. In a type II hypersensitivity reaction, when antibodies are formed against red blood cell antigens of the Rh system, the blood vessels are destroyed by: phagocytosis in the spleen What is the mechanism in type III hypersensitivity reactions?Antibodies bind to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids and the immune complexes are deposited in the tissues. What is the mechanism in type IV hypersensitivity reactions? Cytotoxic T lymphocytes or lymphokine-producing Th1 cells attack and destroy cellular targets directly. One purpose of the inflammatory process is to: prevent infection of the injured tissue. Which bacterium grows in the intestines after prolonged antibiotic therapy? Clostridium difficile What causes the edema that occurs during the inflammatory process? Increased capillary permeability What process causes heat and redness that occur during the inflammatory process? vasodilation The system is a plasma protein system that forms a fibrinous network at an inflamed site to prevent spread of infection to adjacent tissues and keep microorganisms and foreign bodies at the site of greatest inflammatory activity. coagulation Which of the following is a vascular effect of histamine released from mast cells? increased endothelial adhesiveness What effect does chemotactic factor have on the inflammatory process? It directs leukocytes to the inflamed area. When histamine binds the histamine-2 (H2) receptor, inflammation is: inhibited Frequently H1 and H2 receptors are located on the same cells and act in a(n) fashion. antagonistic Which chemical mediators induce pain during an inflammatory response? Prostaglandins and bradykinin Which chemical mediator derived from mast cells retracts endothelial cells to increase vascular permeability and causes leukocyte adhesion to endothelial cells? platelet-activating factor (PAF) What are the inflammatory effects of nitric oxide (NO)?It decreases mast cell function and decreases platelet aggregation. Which of the following indicates a correct sequence in phagocytosis? Recognition, engulfment, fusion, destruction When looking at white blood cell differentials, PAs know that individuals have early, acute inflammatory reactions when they notice elevations of which leukocyte? neutrophils The predominant phagocytic cells in the later stages of an inflammatory response are: monocytes What is the role of eosinophils in regulating vascular mediators released from mast cells? Eosinophils release histaminase that limits the effects of histamine during acute inflammation A role of NK cells is to: eliminate malignant cells Which manifestation of inflammation is systemic? Fever and leukocytosis One systemic manifestation of the acute inflammatory response is fever that is produced by on the hypothalamus. endogenous pyrogens acting Which solution is best to use when cleaning a wound that is healing by epithelialization? Normal saline Many older adults have impaired inflammation and wound healing because of a(n): underlying chronic illness(es). The movement of gas and air into and out of the lungs is called: ventilation Aspiration is most likely to occur in the: right mainstem bronchus because it extends vertically from the trachea Where in the lung does gas exchange occur? alveolocapillary membrane Pressure in the pleural space is: below atmosphericThe adequacy of a person's alveolar ventilation is assessed best by monitoring: arterial blood gas. Normal physiologic changes in the aging pulmonary system include: stiffening of the chest wall. How is most of the oxygen in the blood transported? bound to hemoglobin Which endogenous substances cause bronchoconstriction? Histamine and prostaglandin If a patient develops acidosis, the nurse would expect the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to: shif t to the right, causing more O2 to be released to the cells. Most carbon dioxide in the blood is transported: in the form of bicarbonate. The sternocleidomastoid and scalene muscles are referred to as: diaphragmatic muscles Decreased lung compliance means that the lungs are: stiff The lung is innervated by the parasympathetic nervous system via the nerve. vagus Hypoventilation that results in the retention carbon dioxide will stimulate which of the following receptors in an attempt to maintain a normal homeostatic state? Central chemoreceptors Which of the following is the most important cause of pulmonary artery constriction? Low alveolar PO2 The PA who is auscultating the lungs of a child who has aspirated a piece of hot dog, would expect decreased or absent breath sound over the: right lung secrete surfactant, a lipoprotein that coats the inner surface of the alveoli. Type II alveolar cells The adequacy of a person's alveolar ventilation is assessed best by monitoring:arterial blood gas. Normal physiologic changes in the aging pulmonary system include: stiffening of the chest wall. Changes in the alveoli that cause an increase in alveolar surface tension, alveolar collapse, and decreased lung expansion are a result of: decreased surfactant production. Dyspnea is not a result of: decreased blood flow to the medulla oblongata. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND) is a result of: fluid in the lungs is generally relieved by sitting up in a forward-leaning position. orthopnea Which of the following is a true statement? Hyperventilation causes hypocapnia Pulmonary edema and pulmonary fibrosis cause hypoxemia by: impairing alveolocapillary membrane diffusion Alveolar dead space is a result of: pulmonary emboli The most common cause of pulmonary edema is: left-sided heart failure. involves an abnormally enlarged gas-exchanged system and the destruction of alveolar walls. emphysema is a fulminant form of respiratory failure characterized by acute lung inflammation and diffuse alveolocapillary injury. Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) In ARDS, inflammatory mediators such as proteolytic enzymes, oxygen free radicals, prostaglandins, leukotrienes, and platelet-activating factor are released by: neutrophils. The cause of pulmonary edema in ARDS is the result of increased: capillary permeabilityIn ARDS, alveoli and respiratory bronchioles fill with fluid as a result of the: inactivation of surfactant and the impairment of type II alveolar cells. Which immunoglobulin may contribute to the pathophysiology of asthma? IgE Which inflammatory mediators are produced in asthma? Histamine, prostaglandins, and leukotrienes Clinical manifestations of inspiratory and expiratory wheezing, dyspnea, nonproductive cough, and tachypnea are indicative of: asthma The most successful treatment for chronic asthma begins with: elimination of the causative agent. Clinical manifestations of decreased exercise tolerance, wheezing, shortness of breath, and productive cough are indicative of: chronic bronchitis. Clinical manifestations that include unexplained weight loss, dyspnea on exertion, use of accessory muscles, and tachypnea with prolonged expiration are indicative of: emphysema. The progression of chronic bronchitis is best halted by: smoking cessation A characteristic of inflammatory joint disease is: systemic symptoms of inflammation. What is a primary defect in osteoarthritis (OA)? Stromelysin and acid metalloproteinase break down articular cartilage. Which joint disease is characterized by joint stiffness on movement and joint pain of weight-bearing joints that usually is relieved by rest? osteoarthritis Clinical manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) include: fatigue, fever, and weakness. People with gout are at high risk for: renal calculiWhat causes the crystallization within the synovial fluid of the joint affected by gouty arthritis? Overproduction of uric acid The pathophysiology of gout is closely linked to the metabolism of: purine Why do adolescent girls have the greatest risk for sexually transmitted exposure and infection? Because of the immaturity of their cervix and lack of immunity Gonorrhea is transmitted from a pregnant woman to her fetus: across amniotic membranes by direct inoculation with the fetal scalp electrodes during labor monitoring. The most common local complication of a gonococcal infection in females is: acute salpingitis Gonococcal infection of a newborn is usually manifested as: bilateral corneal ulceration. A major concern in the treatment of gonococci infections is: development of antibiotic resistance. Which sexually transmitted infection frequently coexists with gonorrhea? Chlamydia During the stage of syphilis, blood-borne bacteria spread to all the major organ systems. secondary In which stage of syphilis would the following clinical manifestations be found: destructive skin, bone and soft tissue lesions, aneurysms, heart failure, and neurosyphilis? tertiary Which organism causes syphilis? Treponema pallidum, a spirochete The organism that causes syphilis is best identified via: darkfield microscopy. Which sexually transmitted infection is indicated by a patient who has small, vesicular lesions that last between 10 and 20 days? genital herpesWhich statement is false regarding the risk of transmission of the herpes simplex virus (HSV) from mother to fetus? Neonatal infection of HSV rarely occurs in the intrapartum or postpartum period During the latent period of a herpesvirus infection, the genome of the virus is: maintained in the host cell nucleus. During reactivation (release from latency), herpesvirus genomes are transported through the nerves to the dermal surface. peripheral sensory Which of the following statements provides the most accurate information regarding the transmission of HSV? There is a risk of transmission even during latent periods. Condylomata acuminata, or genital warts, are caused by: human papillomavirus A treatment for trichomoniasis is a single dose of metronidazole (Flagyl). A woman asks if her sexual partner should be treated also. The appropriate answer is: sexual partners should be treated even if asymptomatic. Which microorganism is sexually transmitted, primarily by homosexual men, in infected feces? Shigellosis Hepatitis virus is known to be sexually transmitted. B Treponema pallidum is the cause of: Syphilis Haemophilus ducreyi is the cause of: Chancroid Gardnerella vaginalis Bacterial vaginosis Entamoeba histolytica Amebiasis Trichomonas vaginalisTrichomoniasis What of the following remains a significant cause of morbidity and mortality worldwide? Infectious disease What is the first stage in the infectious process? colonization For which microorganisms is the skin the site of reproduction? bacteria and fungi Once they have penetrated the first line of defense, which microorganisms do neutrophils actively attack, engulf, and destroy by phagocytosis? bacteria Cytokines are thought to raise the thermoregulatory set point to cause fever by stimulating the synthesis of which chemical mediator? Prostaglandin One systemic manifestation of an acute inflammatory response is fever that is produced by: endogenous pyrogens acting directly on the hypothalamus Which statement about vaccines is true? Vaccines require booster injections to maintain lifelong protection. Which of the following is a characteristic of HIV? The virus is a retrovirus. What is the role of reverse transcriptase in HIV infection? It converts RNA into double-stranded DNA Ability of the pathogen to invade and multiply in the host is: Infectivity Potency of a pathogen measured in terms of the number of microorganisms or micrograms of toxin required to kill the host is: Virulence An important factor in determining a pathogen's ability to produce disease by production of a soluble toxin is: Toxigenicity The ability of an agent to produce disease is:Pathogenicity The final common pathway in all shock is: rment of cellular metabolism. How does any type of shock cause oliguria? By decreasing the perfusion to the kidneys The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system compensates for hypovolemic shock by stimulating: aldosterone release, which retains sodium and hence water to increase the blood volume. Hypovolemic shock begins to develop when intravascular volume has decreased by %. 15 shock is often more severe than other forms because of its sudden, rapid systemic vasodilation. Anaphylactic What type of shock results from decreased systemic vascular resistance (SVR)? Septic For which type of shock would antihistamines and corticosteroids be prescribed? Anaphylactic A clinical syndrome involving a systemic response to infection, which is manifested by two or more of the systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) criteria is the definition of: Sepsis What mechanism causes organ injury in primary MODS? impaired perfusion Blistering of the skin occurs in burns. superficial second-degree Acute burn injury results in shock. hypovolemic The fluid most often used in fluid resuscitation following a major burn injury is: lactated Ringer The most reliable criterion of adequate fluid resuscitation following a major burn injury is: urine output. The endpoint of burn shock is defined as the time when the individual is able to:maintain adequate urine output for 2 hours. Burn injury induces almost immediate: hypermetabolism Septic shock follows infection Cardiogenic shock follows myocardial infarction Anaphylactic shock follows widespread hypersensitivity reaction Hypovolemic shock follows major burns