Adult Gerontology Primary Care Nurse
Practitioner
Final Test Review (Qns & Ans)
2025
1. Multiple Choice
A 72-year-old male presents with fatigue, pallor, and dyspnea on
exertion. Laboratory results reveal hemoglobin of 9.2 g/dL and
mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 72 fL. What is the most
likely cause of his anemia?
A. Vitamin B12 deficiency
B. Iron deficiency anemia
C. Anemia of chronic disease
D. Folate deficiency
ANS : B. Iron deficiency anemia
©2025
, Rationale : Microcytic anemia (low MCV) is most commonly
caused by iron deficiency, often due to chronic blood loss or
inadequate dietary intake.
---
2. Fill-in-the-Blank
The ___________ score is used to assess the risk of stroke in
patients with atrial fibrillation.
ANS : CHA₂DS₂-VASc
Rationale : The CHA₂DS₂-VASc score evaluates stroke risk and
guides anticoagulation therapy decisions.
---
3. True/False
Older adults with hypothyroidism often present with classic
symptoms such as weight gain and cold intolerance.
ANS : False
©2025
, Rationale : Older adults may present with atypical symptoms
like cognitive decline or depression, making diagnosis
challenging.
---
4. Multiple Response
Which of the following are risk factors for osteoporosis in older
adults? (Select all that apply.)
A. Smoking
B. High body mass index (BMI)
C. Sedentary lifestyle
D. Long-term corticosteroid use
ANS : A. Smoking, C. Sedentary lifestyle, D. Long-term
corticosteroid use
Rationale : These factors contribute to bone density loss,
increasing the risk of osteoporosis.
---
5. Multiple Choice
©2025
, A 68-year-old female with a history of hypertension presents with
a sudden onset of severe headache and visual changes. What is the
most likely diagnosis?
A. Migraine
B. Temporal arteritis
C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
D. Acute angle-closure glaucoma
ANS : C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Rationale : A sudden, severe headache ("thunderclap
headache") is a hallmark of subarachnoid hemorrhage.
---
6. Fill-in-the-Blank
The most common cause of heart failure with preserved ejection
fraction (HFpEF) in older adults is ___________.
ANS : Hypertension
Rationale : Chronic hypertension leads to left ventricular
hypertrophy and diastolic dysfunction, causing HFpEF.
©2025
Practitioner
Final Test Review (Qns & Ans)
2025
1. Multiple Choice
A 72-year-old male presents with fatigue, pallor, and dyspnea on
exertion. Laboratory results reveal hemoglobin of 9.2 g/dL and
mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 72 fL. What is the most
likely cause of his anemia?
A. Vitamin B12 deficiency
B. Iron deficiency anemia
C. Anemia of chronic disease
D. Folate deficiency
ANS : B. Iron deficiency anemia
©2025
, Rationale : Microcytic anemia (low MCV) is most commonly
caused by iron deficiency, often due to chronic blood loss or
inadequate dietary intake.
---
2. Fill-in-the-Blank
The ___________ score is used to assess the risk of stroke in
patients with atrial fibrillation.
ANS : CHA₂DS₂-VASc
Rationale : The CHA₂DS₂-VASc score evaluates stroke risk and
guides anticoagulation therapy decisions.
---
3. True/False
Older adults with hypothyroidism often present with classic
symptoms such as weight gain and cold intolerance.
ANS : False
©2025
, Rationale : Older adults may present with atypical symptoms
like cognitive decline or depression, making diagnosis
challenging.
---
4. Multiple Response
Which of the following are risk factors for osteoporosis in older
adults? (Select all that apply.)
A. Smoking
B. High body mass index (BMI)
C. Sedentary lifestyle
D. Long-term corticosteroid use
ANS : A. Smoking, C. Sedentary lifestyle, D. Long-term
corticosteroid use
Rationale : These factors contribute to bone density loss,
increasing the risk of osteoporosis.
---
5. Multiple Choice
©2025
, A 68-year-old female with a history of hypertension presents with
a sudden onset of severe headache and visual changes. What is the
most likely diagnosis?
A. Migraine
B. Temporal arteritis
C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
D. Acute angle-closure glaucoma
ANS : C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Rationale : A sudden, severe headache ("thunderclap
headache") is a hallmark of subarachnoid hemorrhage.
---
6. Fill-in-the-Blank
The most common cause of heart failure with preserved ejection
fraction (HFpEF) in older adults is ___________.
ANS : Hypertension
Rationale : Chronic hypertension leads to left ventricular
hypertrophy and diastolic dysfunction, causing HFpEF.
©2025
