PMP Practice Questions with complete solutions

What is the cost of a work package if the resource costs are $25/hour and material costs are $250? This work should take 75 hours. - ANSWER-$2,125 Which of the following statements regarding control accounts is true? A. Every work package must have its own control account. B. A control account is established where the lowest OBS element intersects the lowest WBS element. C. Activity cost estimates. D. A control account is another term for cost center. - ANSWER-D. A control account is another term for cost center. You are estimating the costs for a work effort and have received the following information: best case is $150, and worst case it could cost as much as $225. However, the most likely cost estimate is $195. What is the budget estimate for this work using a triangular distribution formula? - ANSWER-$190.00 How are S-curves used for projects? A. They reflect high spending in the early and latter stages of a project. B. They represent a unique tool for a project. C. They are easy to create using project management software. D. They help you track progress. - ANSWER-D. They help you track progress. Which term refers to the final value of your project that is set at the beginning of your project? A. Estimate at completion (EAC). B. Budget at completion (BAC). C. Planned value (PV). D. Actual costs (AC). - ANSWER-B. Budget at completion (BAC). You have detemined the following information regarding your project. To-date, $43,000 of work has been completed and $47,000 has been spent. The plan called for $44,000 of the $200,000 worth of work to be complete. What is the current earned value? - ANSWER-$43,000 Verified deliverables is an output of which process? A. Manage Quality B. Collect Requirements C. Control Quality D. Validate Scope - ANSWER-C. Control Quality What is the overall purpose of benchmarking? A. Perform reverse engineering B. Learn by copying C. Learn from best-in-class projects or companies D. Reduce the supplier base - ANSWER-C. Learn from best-in-class projects or companies Which of the following groups defines quality levels for a new project? A. Top management B. Quality consultants such as Deming and Juran C. Engineers D. Customers - ANSWER-D. Customers Which statement below accurately describes the purpose of the Manage Quality Process? A. The purpose is to ensure all relevant standards are adhered to. B. The purpose is to continuously improve processes. C. The purpose is to validate that quality requirements have been achieved. D. The purpose is to increase confidence that quality will be achieved. - ANSWER-D. The purpose is to increase confidence that quality will be achieved. Which statement below accurately describes the purpose of the Control Quality Process? A. Verify project deliverables and work meet defined quality requirements. B. Conduct testing and analysis on project deliverables against the stated requirements. C. Ensure all project outputs are complete, correct, and meet customer expectations. D. Validate Processes and optimize them to prevent defects from occurring. - ANSWER-C. Ensure all project outputs are complete, correct, and meet customer expectations. Which of the following is a feature of a quality audit? A. They are unscheduled. B. They take place in secret. C. They are responded to. D. They are loosely constructed and flexible. - ANSWER-C. They are responded to. Which conflict resolution technique would be most appropriate when neither side can get everything they need and it's more important to move on that keep working on the conflict? A. Problem solving B. Avoidance C. Compromise D. Forcing - ANSWER-C. Compromise When is the best time for team building to take place for a project? A. At the beginning of a project. B. During times of conflict. C. Continuously. D. During times of less than planned performance levels. - ANSWER-C. Continuously. Which resource management process focuses on improving competencies with the goal of improving project performance? A. Develop Team B. Manage Team C. Control Resources D. Plan Resource Management - ANSWER-A. Develop Team What type of communication is most appropriate for an executive briefing? A. Informal verbal B. Informal written C. Formal written D. Formal verbal - ANSWER-D. Formal verbal Which communication management process is responsible for ensuring the communication needs of project stakeholders is met? A. Managing Communications B. Monitoring Communications C. Planning Communications Management D. Managing Stakeholder Engagement - ANSWER-B. Monitoring Communications How many communication channels are there for a team of five? - ANSWER-10 Expected monetary value (EMV) is associated with which quantitative risk analysis technique? A. Sensitivity analysis B. Decision tree analysis C. Assumptions analysis D. Multicriteria decision analysis - ANSWER-B. Decision tree analysis Using the diagram shown here, what is the probability of this new product being high quality and low demand? - ANSWER-30% Which of the project risk management processes includes brainstorming as a tool and technique? A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis B. Plan Risk Responses C. Identify Risks D. Plan Risk Management - ANSWER-C. Identify Risks Which risk response planning are used for positive risks (opportunities)? A. Enhance, transfer, and accept B. Enhance, mitigate, and share C. Escalate, exploit, and avoid D. Exploit, enhance, and share - ANSWER-D. Exploit, enhance, and share A high-priority risk has activated, and the planned response deployed. However, the risk was not fully resolved. What is the name for this type of risk? A. Secondary risk B. Inactive risk C. Residual risk D. Retired risk - ANSWER-C. Residual risk Which statement about contingency reserves is true? A. The accept risk response is handled by the contingency reserve. B. The contingency reserve is funded to handle the costs associated with negative risks only. C. The contingency reserve is calculated as a percentage of the project baseline. D. It is owned by the project sponsor and to be used for unknown risks. - ANSWER-A. The accept risk response is handled by the contingency reserve. The list of procured items is found in which procurement document? A. Procurement management plan B. Procurement strategy C. Bid documents D. Delivery method - ANSWER-A. Procurement management plan Which contract clause indemnifies the buyer if there is a loss? A. Dispute resolution clause B. Contract termination clause C. Warranty clause D. Insurance clause - ANSWER-D. Insurance clause Calculate the final price using the following information. The target cost is $100,000, and the actual cost is $93,000. The target fee is $9,000, and the share ratio is 60/40. - ANSWER-$104,800 You are working on a project to update the corporate training database. The director of the training department has been a key stakeholder of your project but has recently taken a new position. Her project role will be shifted to someone else. Which project document must be updated first because of this change? A. Stakeholder engagement assessment matrix B. Stakeholder register C. Issue log D. Influence diagram - ANSWER-B. Stakeholder register Managing stakeholder engagement activities includes which of the following? A. Reviewing actual and desired level of engagements B. Clarifying and resolving stakeholder issues C. Identify strategies to promote effective stakeholder engagement D. Surveying stakeholders to determine levels of satisfaction. - ANSWER-B. Clarifying and resolving stakeholder issues The stakeholder engagement assessment matrix is routinely reviewed and updated during which stakeholder management process? A. Managing Stakeholder Engagement B. Monitor Stakeholder Engagement C. Plan Stakeholder Engagement D. Identify Stakeholders - ANSWER-B. Monitor Stakeholder Engagement Your project is a process improvement project. A manual process currently exists, but you've found no written documentation to support it. Everybody seems to just know what to do when things happen. What type of knowledge is this? A. Implicit knowledge B. Explicit knowledge C. Tacit knowledge D. Corporate knowledge - ANSWER-A. Implicit knowledge Your project is updating an existing assembly line to add more automation equipment. Which of the following would NOT be considered configuration items (CIs) of this project? A. The existing assembly line equipment B. Staff training on the new equipment C. The new automation equipment D. Changes to the plant layout - ANSWER-D. Changes to the plant layout Which of the following statements regarding verification and validation is true? A. Validation leads to accepted deliverables, and verification leads to completed deliverables. B. Validation leads to completed deliverables, and verification leads to accepted deliverables. C. Validation occurs before verification. D. Only verified deliverables are acceptable. - ANSWER-A. Validation leads to accepted deliverables, and verification leads to completed deliverables. The legal definition of fairness requires all of the following conditions EXCEPT: A. Fairness requires the situation must be impartial. B. Fairness requires the situation must be equitable. C. Fairness requires the situation must be reciprocal. D. Fairness requires the situation must be ethical. - ANSWER-D. Fairness requires the situation must be ethical. Conducting ourselves in a professional manner, even when it's not reciprocated, is associated with which PMI Code of Conduct and Professional Responsibility value? A. Value of honesty B. Value of responsibility C. Value of fairness D. Value of respect - ANSWER-D. Value of respect Which of the following is an example of intellectual property? A. A trademark B. Customer lists C. Supply sources D. A physical product - ANSWER-A. A trademark Which of the following statements accurately describes the unique nature of a project? A. It may include repetitive processes. B. It must be 100% unique. C. All unique activities are projects. D. Since a project is unique, it is not progressively elaborated. - ANSWER-A. It may include repetitive processes. How does the word governance relate to project management? A. It concerns the influence of the government on project stakeholder requirements. B. It refers to a project's compliance with the law. C. It relates to a project's planning process. D. It concerns fundamental oversight and control of a project. - ANSWER-D. It concerns fundamental oversight and control of a project. How are processes defined in the PMBOK Guide? A. By inputs, tools and techniques, and outputs. B. By inputs, transformation, and outputs. C. By inputs, execution, control, and outputs. D. By plan-do-check-act. - ANSWER-A. By inputs, tools and techniques, and outputs. Which statement defines the relationship of project management processes, Process Groups, and Project Management Knowledge Areas? A. Process Groups and Project Management Knowledge Areas are derived from the project management processes. B. The Process Groups are integrated throughout the Project Management Knowledge Areas and the project management processes. C. In the PMBOK Guide, the Process Groups are headings for the project management processes and the Project Management Knowledge Areas. D. The Project Management Knowledge Areas and project management processes are independent of the Process Groups. - ANSWER-B. The Process Groups are integrated throughout the Project Management Knowledge Areas and the project management processes. What is the definition of a role? A. A name that describes someone's position or job. B. The expected behaviors associated with a particular position within a group or organization. C. Having a duty to deal with something or having control over someone. D. The power to have an effect on the character, development, or behavior of someone. - ANSWER-B. The expected behaviors associated with a particular position within a group or organization. When should team building take place for your project? A. Because of expense and time, only during the beginning of your project. B. Because your team is high functioning, only during the early stages of your project. C. Near the end of your project. D. Throughout your project, from beginning to end. - ANSWER-D. Throughout your project, from beginning to end. Which of the following is required to formally recognize the creation of a new project? A. An executed contract. B. A project charter. C. A project schedule. D. A project management plan. - ANSWER-B. A project charter. The creation of the scope statement is an output of which scope management process? A. Create WBS. B. Collect Requirements. C. Define Scope. D. Plan Scope Management. - ANSWER-C. Define Scope. Which word or phrase relates to the effective development and use of a work breakdown structure (WBS)? A. Iterative. B. Bottom-up. C. Variance analysis. D. Hierarchical. - ANSWER-D. Hierarchical. What value does the schedule management plan provide for the project? A. The schedule integrates work, resources, and budget. B. It determines the approach used to define and estimate activities. C. It sets expectations regarding how the project schedule will be maintained. D. It establishes the framework for schedule design and management. - ANSWER-D. It establishes the framework for schedule design and management. Which of the four activity dependencies allows for overlapping and puts both activities on their earliest start date? A. Start-to-finish. B. Start-to-start. C. Finish-to-finish. D. Finish-to-start. - ANSWER-B. Start-to-start. How can you identify resource imbalances for your project? A. By using a resource profile. B. By using a Gantt chart. C. By using Monte Carlo Analysis. D. By using the critical chain method. - ANSWER-A. By using a resource profile. The _____ _______ documents the economic feasibility of a potential project. A. business case B. customer contract C. project benefits management plan D. needs assessment - ANSWER-A. business case You are the project manager of a project to create a new employee-recognition program in your organization. This recognition program will award a special plaque to an outstanding employee quarterly. How does the term temporary relate to your project? A. It relates to you giving out the plaque each quarter. B. It relates to your project's topic. C. It relates to your project but not your product. D. It relates to your project having a short duration. - ANSWER-C. It relates to your project but not your product. Projects create deliverables. Which of the following is an example of a project deliverable? A. Creating the project team. B. Approval of the plan. C. Feasibility analysis. D. Business acquisition. - ANSWER-D. Business acquisition. Which of the following is an example of an organizational process asset (OPA)? A. Organizational structure. B. Resource availability. C. Marketplace conditions. D. Policies and procedures. - ANSWER-D. Policies and procedures. Which organizational structure gives a project manager the most control over major project activities? A. Balanced matrix. B. Strong matrix. C.Functional. D. Projectized. - ANSWER-D. Projectized. How does a project differ from a program? A. A project is smaller in scope than a program. B. A program is included as an element of the Project Management Processes, and a project is not. C. A series of programs make up a project. D. Programs may involve a series of repetitive activities, while a project does not. - ANSWER-A. A project is smaller in scope than a program. How do projects and ongoing operations relate to an organization's strategic plan? A. A strategic plan defines numerous projects, while ongoing operations operate independently of both a strategic plan and projects. B. Since a project is temporary, it doesn't relate to a strategic plan. C.Projects only support a strategic plan when they are long term and supported by multiple departments. D. Both support a strategic plan. - ANSWER-D. Both support a strategic plan. What term describes an organizational unit to centralize and coordinate projects? A. Project Management Office. B. Project portfolio. C. Functional department. D. Process Management Group. - ANSWER-A. Project Management Office. A _______ is a collection of logically related project activities that culminates in the completion of one or more deliverables. A. project process B. project phase C. project life cycle D. program - ANSWER-B. project phase Which of the following is an example of a project? A. A new department at your local department store. B. Routine equipment maintenance. C. New blockbuster movie release. D. A specialized call center that can handle a variety of requests. - ANSWER-C. New blockbuster movie release. Which of the following are included in governance framework? A. Policies, procedures, processes. B. Norms, organizational structure, systems. C. Organizational culture, rules, management. D. Relationships, oversight, strategies. - ANSWER-A. Policies, procedures, processes. Which management function area is responsible for developing a structure for day-to-day operations? A. Planning. B. Organizing. C. Staffing. D. Leading. - ANSWER-B. Organizing. What is the project manager's authority level in a balanced matrix organizational structure? A. Little or none. B. Low to moderate. C. Moderate to high. D. High to total. - ANSWER-B. Low to moderate. Organizational ______ is the observable patterns of behavior. A. structure B. system C. culture D. governance - ANSWER-C. culture How do a project life cycle and product life cycle relate? A. A project life cycle is suitable for technology projects, and a product life cycle is suitable for product projects. B. They are independent and thus have no relationship. C. They overlap. D. They are interchangeable terms. - ANSWER-C. They overlap. Which project management process group includes processes required to track, review, and regulate project progress? A. Planning process group. B. Monitoring and Controlling process group. C. Executing process group. D. Closing process group. - ANSWER-B. Monitoring and Controlling process group. _______ is/are the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project requirements. A. Project management. B. Knowledge area. C. Project. D. Process. - ANSWER-A. Project management. Which of the following best describes a project deliverable? A. A tangible item. B. A nontangible item. C. Requested products or services. D. Any output of a project. - ANSWER-D. Any output of a project. Which project life cycle is characterized by determining the project scope, time, and cost in the early phases of the project? A. Incremental life cycle. B. Adaptive life cycle. C. Iterative life cycle. D. Predictive life cycle. - ANSWER-D. Predictive life cycle. How many hours of formal project management training and project management experience must you document on the PMP® exam application if you do not have a four-year college degree? A. 23 hours of education and 1500 hours of experience. B. 23 hours of education and 7500 hours of experience. C. 35 hours of education and 4500 hours of experience. D. 35 hours of education and 7500 hours of experience. - ANSWER-D. 35 hours of education and 7500 hours of experience. Project managers tailor their application of project management to meet the needs of their industry. How would you expect a project manager in construction to tailor his or her approach? A. Focus on stakeholder management to deal with complex and complicated stakeholder needs and recognize the multiple approvals required for any decision. B. Establish formalized project team structure and reporting channels due to the large team sizes. C. Building relationships and emphasizing interpersonal skills over technical skills to keep teams focused on project objectives. D. Focus on ways to establish and maintain clear project boundaries and eliminate avenues of scope creep. - ANSWER-B. Establish formalized project team structure and reporting channels due to the large team sizes. Which source of power is associated with your position in an organization or group? A. Referent power. B. Legitimate power. C. Information power. D. Connection power. - ANSWER-B. Legitimate power. According to PMI, what percentage of project failures is due to ineffective communications? A. 20%. B. 40%. C. 50%. D. 80%. - ANSWER-A. 20% Which of the following skills would you find within the PMI Talent Triangle™ Strategic and Business Management component? A. Data analysis. B. Conflict management. C. Requirements gathering. D. Competitive analysis skills. - ANSWER-D. Competitive analysis skills. All of the following are project manager leadership responsibilities EXCEPT: A. Establishing expectations of what support is needed to achieve the agreed-upon results. B. Taking control of the project and establish vision and direction with the project team. C. Utilizing their sphere of influence effectively and in the best interests of the project. D. Establishing project manager credibility with the team and gain their acceptance of your role. - ANSWER-D. Establishing expectations of what support is needed to achieve the agreed-upon results. Which of the following skills would you find within the PMI Talent Triangle™ Technical Project Management component? A. Decision-making. B. Strategic planning. C. Statusing and performance measurements. D. Operations. - ANSWER-C. Statusing and performance measurements. A ___________ is a systematic series of actions taken to achieve an end result. A. Process. B. Strategy. C. Project. D. Life cycle. - ANSWER-A. Process. There are four fundamental elements of plans. They include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Outcomes determine the actions required. B. Risks that must be mitigated to ensure plan success. C. Strategies determine the preferred approach to reach project objectives. D. Tactics that support your project approach and honor known constraints. - ANSWER-B. Risks that must be mitigated to ensure plan success. According to the PMBOK® Guide, what are tools and techniques? A. They are inputs. B. They are process groups. C. They are outputs. D. They are part of a process. - ANSWER-D. They are part of a process. What are the internal and external factors that cause someone to pursue a task or behave in a certain way? A. Influences. B. Motivation. C. Organizational culture. D. Power. - ANSWER-B. Motivation. Which of the following describes monitoring processes? A. A management function of establishing standards, comparing actual performance against them, and taking corrective action if required. B. Processes whereby modifications to deliverables or baselines associated with the project are identified, documented, and resolved. C. The systematic process of collecting, analyzing, and using information to ensure meeting objectives or performance targets. D. Processes performed to complete the work defined that will satisfy the project and product requirements. - ANSWER-C. The systematic process of collecting, analyzing, and using information to ensure meeting objectives or performance targets. Which process group expends the largest portion of the project's resources, budget, and schedule? A. Executing process group. B. Initiating process group. C. Monitor and Controlling process group. D. Planning process group. - ANSWER-A. Executing process group. What term describes your ability to convince, persuade, or bring others to your way of thinking without force or coercion? A. Influence. B. Power. C.Authority. D. Interpersonal skills. - ANSWER-A. Influence. What is progressive elaboration? A. A series of logically related activities the project passes through from beginning until the end. B. Increasing the confidence and precision level of project estimates by collecting more data. C. The iterative process of adding more detail as more information becomes available. D. Deliverables are produced through a series of iterations that successively add functionality. - ANSWER-C. The iterative process of adding more detail as more information becomes available. You are currently creating the project's schedule. Which project life cycle phase and process group is this associated with? A. The execution phase and executing process group. B. The planning phase and executing process group. C. The initiating phase and planning process group. D. The planning phase and planning process group. - ANSWER-D. The planning phase and planning process group. Which process group is responsible for establishing the total scope of the effort, defining and refining objectives, and developing the course of action to attain those objectives? A. Closing. B. Executing. C. Monitoring and Controlling. D. Planning. - ANSWER-D. Planning. One key area where project managers provide value is integration. Which of the following statements relates to integration? A. Communicate updates in work progress between team members. B. The ability to identify work efforts and business processes between various teams that are in conflict and to work with key stakeholders to align them. C. Work with teams to improve estimating ability consistently. D. Escalate issues to the appropriate executive when conflicts arise. - ANSWER-B. The ability to identify work efforts and business processes between various teams that are in conflict and to work with key stakeholders to align them. Which term describes the expected behaviors associated with a particular position or status within a group or organization? A. Role. B. Responsibilities. C. Skills. D. Personality. - ANSWER-A. Role. All of the following are benefits of a positive work environment EXCEPT: A. Higher first-time quality because problems are identified and addressed earlier. B. Projects finish on time as a result of increased productivity. C. Improved team-building because project teams are dedicated and collocated. D. Increased job satisfaction because people like the work and the people they work with. - ANSWER-C. Improved team-building because project teams are dedicated and collocated. Which of the following skills would you find within the PMI Talent Triangle™ Leadership component? A. Data analysis. B. Negotiation skills. C. Strategic planning. D. Requirements gathering. - ANSWER-B. Negotiation skills. A high-level project description, boundaries, and key deliverables are documented in the _____? A. Project management plan. B. Project charter. C. Project scope management plan. D. Scope statement. - ANSWER-B. Project charter. What is the completion of project scope measured against? A. Project management plan. B. Product requirements. C. Scope validation. D. Scope statement. - ANSWER-A. Project management plan. Which Collect Requirements tool visually depicts product scope by showing a business system and how people and other systems interact with it? A. Prototype. B. Affinity diagram. C. Flow chart. D. Context diagram. - ANSWER-D. Context diagram. What type of requirement captures all conditions and criteria that must be met to confirm a deliverable is completed? A. Solution requirements. B. Functional requirements. C. Project requirements. D. Quality requirements. - ANSWER-D. Quality requirements. The companion document that provides details of elements in the work breakdown structure is the _____. A. Scope statement. B. WBS orientation. C. WBS dictionary. D. Scope baseline. - ANSWER-C. WBS dictionary. The Define Scope process is in the ______ process group. A. Planning. B. Initiating. C. Executing. D. Monitoring and Controlling. - ANSWER-A. Planning. The project manager is responsible for project _________ and cannot delegate or transfer this to other stakeholders. A. Change control. B. Scope management. C. Integration management. D. Collecting requirements. - ANSWER-C. Integration management. Which enterprise environmental factor (EEF) can influence the Develop Project Charter process? A. Legal and regulatory requirements. B. Organizational governance framework. C. Policies and procedures. D. Historical information. - ANSWER-A. Legal and regulatory requirements. When is the best time to ensure that project scope is acceptable? A. During Define Scope. B. During the initiation phase. C. At project closure. D. When each phase concludes. - ANSWER-D. When each phase concludes. What is the purpose of the scope management plan? A. Provides guidance and direction for project scope validation. B. Describes how project and product requirements will be managed. C. Describes how project scope will be planned, managed, and controlled. D. Provides a detailed description of the project and product. - ANSWER-C. Describes how project scope will be planned, managed, and controlled. Which scope management process monitors scope with the goal of maintaining the scope baseline? A. Validate Scope. B. Control Scope. C. Define Scope. D. Plan Scope Management. - ANSWER-B. Control Scope. Which of the following is an output of the Control Scope process? A. Project management plan updates. B. Scope baseline. C. WBS. D. Requirements traceability matrix. - ANSWER-A. Project management plan updates. When defining scope of a product, which tool can be used on new products during product development when they are being evaluated regarding costs and functionalities? A. Value analysis. B. Systems analysis. C. Value engineering. D. Requirements analysis. - ANSWER-C. Value engineering. Which of the following DOES NOT help evaluate a potential scope change? A. Exception report. B. Change request. C. Milestone. D. Project baseline. - ANSWER-B. Change request. What technique is used to divide project deliverables into smaller, more manageable parts? A. Work breakdown structure. B. Value engineering. C. Brainstorming. D. Decomposition. - ANSWER-D. Decomposition. Which statement regarding the project management plan is true? A. It defines how the project is executed, monitored, controlled, and eventually closed. B. It should be a summary-level document with references to other project documents. C. It requires customer approval prior to project implementation. D. It is the process for coordinating and consolidating all plan components. - ANSWER-A. It defines how the project is executed, monitored, controlled, and eventually closed. The requirements management plan is an output of which Scope Management process? A. Collect Requirements. B. Define Scope. C. Create WBS. D. Plan Scope Management. - ANSWER-D. Plan Scope Management. Where are project boundaries, inclusions, and exclusions documented? A. Project charter. B. Scope statement. C. Work breakdown structure. D. Requirements management plan. - ANSWER-B. Scope statement. The scope baseline includes all of the following EXCEPT ____. A. Scope management plan. B. Scope statement. C. Work breakdown structure. D. WBS dictionary. - ANSWER-A. Scope management plan. This is used often to assess inputs and provide opinions utilizing acquired specific subject area knowledge. A. Expert judgement. B. Decision-making. C. Data analysis. D. Data gathering. - ANSWER-A. Expert judgement. A lead can only be used on which activity dependency type? A. Start-to-finish. B. Finish-to-finish. C. Finish-to-start. D. Start-to-start. - ANSWER-C. Finish-to-start. What is the calculated three-point estimate duration when the worst-case scenario is 16, the most likely 8, and the best case 6? A. 8. B. 9. C. 10. D. 13. - ANSWER-B. 9. An activity has an early start date of 5 and a late start date of 17. Its duration is 8. Which of the following statements describes a correct condition about this activity? A. Float is 12. B. Late finish is 24. C. Early start is 12. D. It is on the critical path. - ANSWER-A. Float is 12. Which of the statements are true given the following information? A. A is on the critical path, but B is not. B. B is likely a predecessor of A. C. The float time for A is 3, and the float time for B is 5. D. A has no float time, but B has float of 4. - ANSWER-D. A has no float time, but B has float of 4. What is involved in fast tracking a project? A. Re-engineering project activities. B. Asking the team to work faster. C. Working on two activities in parallel. D. Adding more float time to projects with float time. - ANSWER-C. Working on two activities in parallel. What is the purpose of a lag? A. Allows an acceleration of the successor activity. B. Allows a delay of the successor activity. C. Allows a delay of the predecessor activity. D. Allows an acceleration of the predecessor activity. - ANSWER-B. Allows a delay of the successor activity. Which of the conditions is certain to alter a project's completion date? A. If the critical path is increased. B. If float time is less than 3. C. If project resources are reduced. D. If customers request more items. - ANSWER-A. If the critical path is increased. What is the major benefit of using the Precedence Diagramming Method? A. Shows external and discretionary dependencies. B. Shows an activity list. C. Identifies all activities in a WBS. D. Identifies project activity interdependencies. - ANSWER-D. Identifies project activity interdependencies. What is another name for a Gantt chart? A. Bar chart. B. Critical Chain. C. Resource chart. D. Milestone chart. - ANSWER-A. Bar chart. What is the correct list of the processes in the Project Schedule Management knowledge area? A. Plan Schedule Management, Define Activities, Estimate Activity Durations, Sequence Activities, Develop Schedule, Schedule Change Control. B. Initiation, Plan Schedule Management, Define Activities, Estimate Activity Durations, Sequence Activities, Develop Schedule, Control Schedule. C. Plan Schedule Management, Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Estimate Activity Durations, Develop Schedule, Control Schedule. D. Create WBS, Plan Schedule Management, Estimate Activity Durations, Sequence Activities, Develop Schedule, Control Schedule. - ANSWER-C. Plan Schedule Management, Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Estimate Activity Durations, Develop Schedule, Control Schedule. Rolling wave planning is a type of _____. A. Scheduling method. B. Scheduling model. C. Scheduling technique. D. Scheduling tool. - ANSWER-C. Scheduling technique. All of the following are activity attributes EXCEPT: A. Early start dates. B. Predecessors. C. Duration estimates. D. Resource requirements. - ANSWER-A. Early start dates. Which activity type is used to indicate a significant event in the schedule? A. Discrete. B. Milestone C. Summary. D. Level of Effort. - ANSWER-B. Milestone You are remodeling your kitchen. Once the kitchen cabinets are installed, the countertops can be installed. What type of activity dependency is this? A. Start-to-start. B. Start-to-finish. C. Finish-to-finish. D. Finish-to-start. - ANSWER-D. Finish-to-start. Which of the following is an output of Control Schedule? A. Project schedule network diagrams. B. Schedule compression. C. Change requests. D. Recommended corrective actions. - ANSWER-C. Change requests. How is the critical path best described? A. The longest path. B. The shortest path. C. The path that represents the most efficient path. D. The path that contains discretionary dependencies. - ANSWER-A. The longest path. Analogous estimating can be used to develop which type of estimate? A. Budgetary. B. Engineering. C. Preliminary. D. Definitive. - ANSWER-C. Preliminary What type of an element might you find in a network diagram? A. A constraint. B. A predecessor. C. Resource assignments. D. Calendar dates. - ANSWER-B. A predecessor. What characteristic is unique for Critical Chain Method? A. Use of buffers. B. Calculation of critical path. C. Determining activity dependencies. D. Mapping activities to calendars. - ANSWER-A. Use of buffers. Which choice correctly describes mandatory dependencies? A. Soft logic. B. Outside the project team's control. C. Preferred logic. D. Inherent in work. - ANSWER-D. Inherent in work. According to Edwards Deming, what percentage of the costs of quality is management's responsibility? A. 25% B. 15% C. 85% D. 50% - ANSWER-C. 85% Analysis costs such as operating and maintenance costs are part of which category of project life cycle costs? A. Planning and design costs. B. Execution costs. C. Operating costs. D. Disposal costs. - ANSWER-A. Planning and design costs. Calibrating the instruments and maintaining equipment is part of which cost of quality category? A. Appraisal costs. B. Internal failure costs. C. External failure costs. D. Prevention costs. - ANSWER-D. Prevention costs. Which quality guru is known for the four absolutes of quality? A. Philip Crosby. B. Edwards Deming. C. Walter Shewhart. D. Joseph Juran. - ANSWER-A. Philip Crosby. Which costs are associated with one project and remain constant? A. Variable direct costs. B. Fixed indirect costs. C. Fixed direct costs. D. Variable indirect costs. - ANSWER-C. Fixed direct costs. What does parametric estimating involve? A. Actual costs of dissimilar projects. B. Bottom-up estimates. C. Mathematical models. D. Top-down estimates. - ANSWER-C. Mathematical models. Project costs are generally managed and reported at what level? A. Work package level. B. Control account level C. Cost center level. D. Activity level. - ANSWER-B. Control account level What is the formula to calculate schedule variance (SV)? A. EV/PV. B. EV/BAC. C. ES/PV. D. EV - PV. - ANSWER-D. EV - PV. You are estimating the costs for building a new component. The material costs are $300 per unit and you'll need seven units. The labor costs are $50 per hour. The work is estimated at 25 hours. Administrative overhead is 10% of labor costs. What is the total cost for this component? A. $3,475. B. $1,250. C. $3,350. D. $1,675. - ANSWER-A. $3,475. Which quality management process identifies quality metrics relevant to the project? A. Manage Quality. B. Monitor Quality. C. Control Quality. D. Plan Quality Management. - ANSWER-D. Plan Quality Management. All of the following quality activities should be documented in the quality management plan EXCEPT: A. Document design control procedures. B. Analyze root cause of defects or variances. C. Define procedure to handle nonconformance issues. D. Schedule for quality control activities (tests or reviews). - ANSWER-B. Analyze root cause of defects or variances. You can only choose one of two potential projects. The benefit of project A is $300,000 and the benefit of project B is $230,000. What is the opportunity cost if project A is selected? A. $70,000. B. $230,000. C. $300,000. D. -$70,000. - ANSWER-B. $230,000. You are statusing a project. Currently you are four months into a 12 month project. The team planned on completing 4 work packages each with a $12,000 budget. So far, 3 work packages have been completed at a cost of $37,000. What is the earned value at this time? A. $12,000. B. $36,000. C. $37,000. D. $48,000. - ANSWER-B. $36,000. The project status is as follows: CPI = 1.07 and SPI = 0.95. What is the interpretation of this information? A. The current productivity and spending efficiency is less than planned. B. The current productivity and spending efficiency is better than planned. C. The current productivity is less than planned, however there is better than planned spending efficiency. D. The current spending efficiency is less than planned, however there is better than planned productivity. - ANSWER-C. The current productivity is less than planned, however there is better than planned spending efficiency. Which of the following would be considered an internal failure cost? A. Rework. B. Product recalls. C. Warranty claims. D. Company reputation. - ANSWER-A. Rework. This earned value measurement component represents the additional funds needed to complete the project. A. Actual Costs to-date. B. Estimate to Complete. C. Estimate at Completion. D. Variance at Completion. - ANSWER-B. Estimate to Complete. Which of the following is NOT included in the cost baseline? A. Contingency reserve. B. Control accounts. C. Activity cost estimates. D. Management reserve. - ANSWER-D. Management reserve. What is the name of the integrated baseline used to manage, measure and control project execution? A. Cost Baseline. B. Schedule Baseline. C. Scope Baseline. D. Performance Measurement Baseline. - ANSWER-D. Performance Measurement Baseline. Which of the following describes Net Present Value (NPV)? A. Measure loss or gain relative to the amount of money invested. B. Looks at today's dollar at some point in the future. C. It compares the dollar value of today versus that same dollar in the future after taking inflation and discount rate into consideration. D. Looks at a future dollar value and determines its value today. - ANSWER-C. It compares the dollar value of today versus that same dollar in the future after taking inflation and discount rate into consideration. You are gathering information to estimate a work effort. The estimator believes if all goes well it could take as little as 4 days to complete. However, if things don't go well it could take much longer. Probably 9 days to complete. Most of the time, he can do the job in 6 days. What is the PERT estimate for this work effort? A. 6.0. B. 6.17 days. C. 6.33. D. 12.33. - ANSWER-B. 6.17 days. In the communications model, there are four basic components. Which one represent the person responsible for creating the message? A. Decoder. B. Encoder. C. Mode. D. Feedback. - ANSWER-B. Encoder. Where do you document how you plan to estimate, acquire and manage project resources? A.Resource Management Plan. B. Work Breakdown Structure. C. Stakeholder Management Plan. D. Project Management Plan. - ANSWER-A.Resource Management Plan. What is the focus of quality assurance? A. The focus is on better product designs. B. The focus is on process improvement. C. The focus is on eliminating defects. D. The focus is on effective use of processes in the project. - ANSWER-D. The focus is on effective use of processes in the project. Objectives of a quality audit may include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Identifying and sharing best practices that could be implemented. B. Identifying lessons learned for the lessons learned repository. C. Training staff on quality standards. D. Identify nonconformance issues. - ANSWER-C. Training staff on quality standards. Several identified resources will not be available the first month of the project. Where is the best place to document a specific resource's availability? A. Project schedule. B. WBS dictionary (resource requirements). C. Project calendar. D. Resource calendars. - ANSWER-D. Resource calendars. What percentage of a message is non-verbal? A. 7%. B. 38%. C. 46%. D. 55%. - ANSWER-D. 55%. What is an alternate name for Ishikawa diagram? A. Influence diagram. B. Cause and effect diagram. C. Tornado diagram. D. Histogram. - ANSWER-B. Cause and effect diagram. Which quality management tool ranks observations and displays them in a vertical bar chart format? A. Pareto chart. B. Control chart. C. Cause-and-effect diagram. D. Flowchart. - ANSWER-A. Pareto chart. The team productivity level is lowest during which team development stage? A. Forming. B. Storming. C. Norming. D. Performing. - ANSWER-B. Storming. You are analyzing a control chart and have identified a pattern where there's a definite trend. What type of pattern is this? A. Hugging. B. Cyclical. C. Rule of Seven. D. Special cause variation. - ANSWER-C. Rule of Seven. You have received a quote from a seller and the information is incorrect. What is the appropriate communication style to respond with the desired corrections? A. Formal written. B. Formal verbal. C. Informal written. D. Informal verbal. - ANSWER-A. Formal written. Which resource management process focuses exclusively on physical resources? A. Acquire Resources. B. Control Resources. C. Estimate Activity Resources. D. Plan Resource Management. - ANSWER-B. Control Resources. When would it be appropriate to utilize smoothing as a conflict resolution? A. When it's more important to move forward on the project and conceding the point will allow that. B. When it's more important to maintain relationships than winning the argument. C. When there's not enough time to utilize problem solving. D. When the issues is highly charged with emotions on both sides of the conflict. - ANSWER-B. When it's more important to maintain relationships than winning the argument. According to the PMBOK® Guide, what is the relationship between the Manage Quality process and Quality Assurance? A. Manage Quality is a subset of Quality Assurance. B. One focuses on product design and the other focuses in on product processes. C. One includes audits and the other does not. D. Quality Assurance is a subset of Manage Quality. - ANSWER-D. Quality Assurance is a subset of Manage Quality. Which of the following is NOT an example of a communication method? A. Team collaboration site. B. Email newsletter. C. Permission based access to corporate knowledge bases. D. Weekly project team meetings. - ANSWER-A. Team collaboration site. Currently, your team consists of 7 people. Next week three more people will join the team. How many communication channels does the current team have? A. 21. B. 24. C. 30. D. 45. - ANSWER-A. 21. Which communication process ensures the information needs of the project and its stakeholders is met? A. Monitor Stakeholder Engagement. B. Manage Communications. C. Monitoring Communications. D. Plan Communications Management. - ANSWER-C. Monitoring Communications. The Resource Breakdown Structure (RBS) is an output of which resource management process? A. Acquire Resources. B. Plan Resource Management. C. Create Budget. D. Estimate Activity Resources. - ANSWER-D. Estimate Activity Resources. The use of statistical sampling requires analysis to determine the disposition of a sample of a lot or batch. This is called the ________. A. Quality Metrics. B. Acceptance Criteria. C. Acceptable Quality Level (AQL). D. Statistical Process Control (SPC). - ANSWER-C. Acceptable Quality Level (AQL). Your report includes milestones and accomplishments. What type of report is this? A. Progress report. B. Status report. C. Performance reporting. D. Earned Value Management reporting. - ANSWER-A. Progress report. What do you call a risk that occurs as a direct result of implementing a primary risk response? A. Residual risk B. Secondary risk C. Active risk D. Risk trigger - ANSWER-B. Secondary risk The seller is responsible for creating which procurement document? A. Procurement Statement of Work B. Bid documents C. Delivery method D. Proposal - ANSWER-D. Proposal Which contract type places most of the risk on the buyer? A. Cost Reimbursement contracts B. Fixed Price contracts C. Time and Material contracts - ANSWER-A. Cost Reimbursement contracts What contract term specifies the amount of money the buyer expects to pay? A. Ceiling price B. Final price C. Target price D. Target cost - ANSWER-C. Target price What do you call a risk that is currently being responded to? A. Contingency plan B. Active risk C. Implement risk responses D. A newly identified risk - ANSWER-B. Active risk What is the recommended tool to capture risk categories? A. Risk register B. Risk report C. Risk management plan. D. Risk Breakdown Structure (RBS) - ANSWER-D. Risk Breakdown Structure (RBS) Which Risk Management process determines the effectiveness of an implemented risk response? A.Monitor Risks B. Implement Risk Responses C. Monitor and Control Project Work D. Control Schedule - ANSWER-A.Monitor Risks What is the proper response when the response will impact more than just your project and requires a higher level of authority? A. Avoid B. Escalation C. Transfer D. Enhance - ANSWER-B. Escalation Which risk identification tool is more likely to identify positive risks? A. Brainstorming B. Root Cause Analysis C. Interviews D. SWOT analysis - ANSWER-D. SWOT analysis Which statement about Risk Qualitative Analysis is true? A. Risk qualitative analysis allows you to prioritize individual risks. B. Risk qualitative analysis results in expected monetary value (EMV) of individual risks. C. Risk qualitative analysis utilizes sensitivity analysis and influence diagrams. D. Risk qualitative analysis is required to assess overall risk level. - ANSWER-A. Risk qualitative analysis allows you to prioritize individual risks. What is the appropriate usage of the enhance risk response for a positive risk? A. Eliminate uncertainty B. Decrease the probability of occurrence C. Increase the probability of occurrence D. Look for opportunities to activate a trigger event for the risk. - ANSWER-C. Increase the probability of occurrence A risk register should contain which information? A. Risk statements, probability, category B. Risk status, risk owner, owner's risk tolerance level C. Risk identification number, WBS code, Activity code D. Risk score, planned risk responses, potential risk responses - ANSWER-A. Risk statements, probability, category Common elements of a contract include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Dispute resolution process B. Cost quote C. Quality requirements D. Payment schedule - ANSWER-B. Cost quote You are closing out a fixed price plus incentive fee contract. The target cost is $60,000 and the actual cost is $57,500. The target fee is $9,000 and the share ratio is 70/30. Calculate the final fee. A. $750 B. $6,500 C. $9,000 D. $9,750 - ANSWER-D. $9,750 What information would you expect to find in a Terms of Reference (TOR) that you wouldn't expect to find in a statement of work (SOW)? A. Duration of assignment B. Testing requirements C. Performance requirements D. Operating conditions (constraints) - ANSWER-A. Duration of assignment Calculate the expected monetary value (EMV) of a risk that has a probability of 70% and impact of $200,000. A. $60,000 B. $140,000 C. -$60,000 D. -$200,000 - ANSWER-B. $140,000 Which analysis tool helps you identify which individual risk has the most potential impact on a project objective? A.Sensitivity analysis B. Tornado diagram C.Qualitative Risk analysis D. Root cause analysis - ANSWER-A.Sensitivity analysis As you are monitoring project risks, a new risk is identified. What is the appropriate response for the newly activated risk? A. Accept the risk. B. Initiate the planned risk response. C. Implement a workaround D. Escalate the risk to management. - ANSWER-C. Implement a workaround The seller is not meeting the terms and conditions established in the contract. What should you do? A. Terminate the contract for cause. B. Invoke the dispute resolution clause. C. Terminate the contract for convenience. D. Notify the legal department to handle it. - ANSWER-A. Terminate the contract for cause. Where is the schedule of key procurement activities documented? A. In the procurement management plan B. In the procurement strategy C. In the statement of work D. In the bid documents - ANSWER-A. In the procurement management plan