1. Purposes of case management include all of the following except…
a. Coordination of care
b. Improving patient outcomes
c. Decrease the use of the hospital system
d. Improve resource utilization
2. As the coordinator of care, the nurse is responsible for…
a. Initiating the plan of care
b. Communicating changes in the patient’s status to members of the team
c. Facilitating referrals and identifying community
resources d. All of the responses are correct
3. Which of the following statements regarding case management is most accurate?
a. Case management plans are terminated upon discharge from the
hospital b. Case management plans are initiated at the beginning of care
c. The physician is the central point for collaboration between all health care
team members
d. The RN must have an order to initiate a case management plan
4. You are caring for a patient who develops pneumonia one week after being hospitalized
for abdominal surgery. What type of infection would this be classified as?
a. Emerging infection
b. Re-emerging infection
c. Nosocomial infection
d. Antibiotic resistant infection
5. You are caring for a patient who has measles (rubeola). Based on the mode of
transmission, which type of precautions should the patient be placed on?
a. Standard
b. Contact
c. Droplet
d. Airborne
6. All of the following are possible manifestations of an infection, EXCEPT:
a. Fever and chills
b. Chest pain and syncope
c. Nausea and vomiting
d. Cough and sputum production
7. You are caring for a patient who has an elevated WBC count and the differential shows
elevation in the neutrophils. What type of infection is the patient likely experiencing?
a. Bacterial
b. Viral
c. Parasitic
d. Fungal
8. When collecting a culture and sensitivity , the nurse knows the final report should return in…
a. 24 hours
, b. 48 hours
c. 72 hours
d. 96 hours
9. In preparing a client for surgery, all of the following are important to access EXCEPT…
a. Use of the prescription and over the counter medications
b. Prior history of reactions to
anesthesia c. Last bowel movement
d. Allergies
10. In teaching a patient about food restrictions prior to a surgery with conscious sedation,
which statement is most important to include?
a. Limit your caffeine intake to no more than 20 ounces the day prior
b. You should have nothing to eat or drink eight hours prior to your scheduled surgery
c. There are no dietary modifications necessary
d. All food and drink should be avoided for 4 hours prior to surgery
11. Which items should be placed on the client’s chart prior to surgery? Select all that
apply a. Informed consent
b. Blood transfusion documents
c. Advanced directives
d. Insurance information
12. What type of anesthesia describes an anesthetic agent that results in loss of consciousness
and the inability to maintain the airway on their own?
a. Local anesthesia
b. Conscious sedation
c. General anesthesia
13. A client has just arrived to the unit following an exploratory laparotomy with general
anesthesia. How often should the RN plan to check the client’s vital signs for the first hour?
a. Every 30 minutes for 1
hour b. Every 15 minutes for 1
hour
c. Every 5 minutes for 1 hour
d. Only at the time of arrival to the unit
14. You are caring for an elderly client who was admitted with a diagnosis of pneumonia. Which
of the following findings would be an early indicator of potential respiratory compromise?
a. Shortness of air at rest
b. Cyanosis around her
lips c. Restlessness
d. Unresponsiveness
15. Which of the following statements regarding SpO2 is most accurate?
a. It’s the amount of oxygen dissolved in the
blood b. It’s the amount of oxygen bound to
hemoglobin
c. It is calculated from an arterial blood sample
,16. When the nurse is analyzing the results of a patient’s arterial blood gases (ABGs), which
finding indicates the need for most immediate action?
a. The arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2) is 92%
b. The partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood (PaO2) is 59 mmHg
c. The partial pressure of CO2 in arterial blood (PaCP2) is 31 mmHg
d. The bicarbonate level (HC3O-) is 29 mEq/L
17. The nurse interprets an induration of 5 mm resulting from tuberculin skin testing as a
positive finding in…
a. Patients at a low risk for TB
b. Immigrants arriving within the past 5
years c. A patient with a 5-year history
of HIV
d. A healthy individual with no chronic health conditions
18. A patient with a pleural effusion is scheduled for a thoracentesis. Before the procedure,
the nurse will plan to…
a. Start a peripheral intravenous line to administer the necessary sedative drugs
b. Position the patient sitting upright on the edge of the bed and leaning forward
c. Remove the water pitcher and remind the patient not to eat or drink anything for
6 hours
d. Instruct the patient about the importance of incentive spirometer use after
the procedure
19. Which action should the nurse take first when a patient develops a nose bleed?
a. Pack both nares tightly with half inch ribbon
gauze b. Pinch the lower portion of the nose for 10
minutes
c. Prepare supplies that will be needed for cauterization
d. Apply ice compress is over the patient’s nose and cheeks
20. The nurse obtains the following assessment data in a 76-year-old patient who has
influenza. Which information will be most important to communicate to the healthcare
provider?
a. Sore throat and a cough
b. Headache and fatigue
c. Temperature of
100.4°F d. New onset of
crackles
21. Which medication should be assessed prior to surgery?
a. All prescription medications
b. All OTC medications
c. Dietary and herbal supplements
d. Recreational drugs
e. All of the following should be assessed
22. Which statement regarding informed consent is accurate?
a. Only procedures with a high complication risk requires consent
b. It is the nurse’s responsibility to explain the procedure to the
patient c. A medical emergency may override the need for consent
, 23. How long should a patient be NPO prior to conscious sedation?
a. Two hours
b. Four hours
c. Six hours
d. Eight hours
24. All of the following are appropriate preop interventions except…
a. Baseline labs
b. Baseline vitals
c. IV access
d. Airway assessment
e. All of the following are appropriate preop interventions
25. What items should be signed and placed on the chart prior to surgery?
a. Consent
b. Blood transfusion documents
c. Advanced directives
d. Power of
attorney e. All of the
above
26. To reduce the risk of postop pneumonia, the nurse should implement
(SATA) a. Early ambulation
b. Incentive spirometry
c. Turn, cough, deep
breath d. Hydration
27. Which type of sedation numbs only the area of the procedure?
a. Conscious sedation
b. General
anesthesia c. Local
anesthesia
28. Which type of anesthesia alters the patient’s memory/consciousness but the patient is able
to maintain their own airway?
a. Conscious sedation
b. General anesthesia
c. Local anesthesia
29. Which type of anesthesia alters the patient’s consciousness and makes the patient unable
to maintain their own airway?
a. Conscious sedation
b. General anesthesia
c. Local anesthesia
30. All of the following are used for DVT prevention,
except… a. Incentive spirometry
b. Ambulation
c. Hydration
d. SCD/TED hose
a. Coordination of care
b. Improving patient outcomes
c. Decrease the use of the hospital system
d. Improve resource utilization
2. As the coordinator of care, the nurse is responsible for…
a. Initiating the plan of care
b. Communicating changes in the patient’s status to members of the team
c. Facilitating referrals and identifying community
resources d. All of the responses are correct
3. Which of the following statements regarding case management is most accurate?
a. Case management plans are terminated upon discharge from the
hospital b. Case management plans are initiated at the beginning of care
c. The physician is the central point for collaboration between all health care
team members
d. The RN must have an order to initiate a case management plan
4. You are caring for a patient who develops pneumonia one week after being hospitalized
for abdominal surgery. What type of infection would this be classified as?
a. Emerging infection
b. Re-emerging infection
c. Nosocomial infection
d. Antibiotic resistant infection
5. You are caring for a patient who has measles (rubeola). Based on the mode of
transmission, which type of precautions should the patient be placed on?
a. Standard
b. Contact
c. Droplet
d. Airborne
6. All of the following are possible manifestations of an infection, EXCEPT:
a. Fever and chills
b. Chest pain and syncope
c. Nausea and vomiting
d. Cough and sputum production
7. You are caring for a patient who has an elevated WBC count and the differential shows
elevation in the neutrophils. What type of infection is the patient likely experiencing?
a. Bacterial
b. Viral
c. Parasitic
d. Fungal
8. When collecting a culture and sensitivity , the nurse knows the final report should return in…
a. 24 hours
, b. 48 hours
c. 72 hours
d. 96 hours
9. In preparing a client for surgery, all of the following are important to access EXCEPT…
a. Use of the prescription and over the counter medications
b. Prior history of reactions to
anesthesia c. Last bowel movement
d. Allergies
10. In teaching a patient about food restrictions prior to a surgery with conscious sedation,
which statement is most important to include?
a. Limit your caffeine intake to no more than 20 ounces the day prior
b. You should have nothing to eat or drink eight hours prior to your scheduled surgery
c. There are no dietary modifications necessary
d. All food and drink should be avoided for 4 hours prior to surgery
11. Which items should be placed on the client’s chart prior to surgery? Select all that
apply a. Informed consent
b. Blood transfusion documents
c. Advanced directives
d. Insurance information
12. What type of anesthesia describes an anesthetic agent that results in loss of consciousness
and the inability to maintain the airway on their own?
a. Local anesthesia
b. Conscious sedation
c. General anesthesia
13. A client has just arrived to the unit following an exploratory laparotomy with general
anesthesia. How often should the RN plan to check the client’s vital signs for the first hour?
a. Every 30 minutes for 1
hour b. Every 15 minutes for 1
hour
c. Every 5 minutes for 1 hour
d. Only at the time of arrival to the unit
14. You are caring for an elderly client who was admitted with a diagnosis of pneumonia. Which
of the following findings would be an early indicator of potential respiratory compromise?
a. Shortness of air at rest
b. Cyanosis around her
lips c. Restlessness
d. Unresponsiveness
15. Which of the following statements regarding SpO2 is most accurate?
a. It’s the amount of oxygen dissolved in the
blood b. It’s the amount of oxygen bound to
hemoglobin
c. It is calculated from an arterial blood sample
,16. When the nurse is analyzing the results of a patient’s arterial blood gases (ABGs), which
finding indicates the need for most immediate action?
a. The arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2) is 92%
b. The partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood (PaO2) is 59 mmHg
c. The partial pressure of CO2 in arterial blood (PaCP2) is 31 mmHg
d. The bicarbonate level (HC3O-) is 29 mEq/L
17. The nurse interprets an induration of 5 mm resulting from tuberculin skin testing as a
positive finding in…
a. Patients at a low risk for TB
b. Immigrants arriving within the past 5
years c. A patient with a 5-year history
of HIV
d. A healthy individual with no chronic health conditions
18. A patient with a pleural effusion is scheduled for a thoracentesis. Before the procedure,
the nurse will plan to…
a. Start a peripheral intravenous line to administer the necessary sedative drugs
b. Position the patient sitting upright on the edge of the bed and leaning forward
c. Remove the water pitcher and remind the patient not to eat or drink anything for
6 hours
d. Instruct the patient about the importance of incentive spirometer use after
the procedure
19. Which action should the nurse take first when a patient develops a nose bleed?
a. Pack both nares tightly with half inch ribbon
gauze b. Pinch the lower portion of the nose for 10
minutes
c. Prepare supplies that will be needed for cauterization
d. Apply ice compress is over the patient’s nose and cheeks
20. The nurse obtains the following assessment data in a 76-year-old patient who has
influenza. Which information will be most important to communicate to the healthcare
provider?
a. Sore throat and a cough
b. Headache and fatigue
c. Temperature of
100.4°F d. New onset of
crackles
21. Which medication should be assessed prior to surgery?
a. All prescription medications
b. All OTC medications
c. Dietary and herbal supplements
d. Recreational drugs
e. All of the following should be assessed
22. Which statement regarding informed consent is accurate?
a. Only procedures with a high complication risk requires consent
b. It is the nurse’s responsibility to explain the procedure to the
patient c. A medical emergency may override the need for consent
, 23. How long should a patient be NPO prior to conscious sedation?
a. Two hours
b. Four hours
c. Six hours
d. Eight hours
24. All of the following are appropriate preop interventions except…
a. Baseline labs
b. Baseline vitals
c. IV access
d. Airway assessment
e. All of the following are appropriate preop interventions
25. What items should be signed and placed on the chart prior to surgery?
a. Consent
b. Blood transfusion documents
c. Advanced directives
d. Power of
attorney e. All of the
above
26. To reduce the risk of postop pneumonia, the nurse should implement
(SATA) a. Early ambulation
b. Incentive spirometry
c. Turn, cough, deep
breath d. Hydration
27. Which type of sedation numbs only the area of the procedure?
a. Conscious sedation
b. General
anesthesia c. Local
anesthesia
28. Which type of anesthesia alters the patient’s memory/consciousness but the patient is able
to maintain their own airway?
a. Conscious sedation
b. General anesthesia
c. Local anesthesia
29. Which type of anesthesia alters the patient’s consciousness and makes the patient unable
to maintain their own airway?
a. Conscious sedation
b. General anesthesia
c. Local anesthesia
30. All of the following are used for DVT prevention,
except… a. Incentive spirometry
b. Ambulation
c. Hydration
d. SCD/TED hose
