BURNS PEDIATRIC PRIMARY CARE 8TH
EDITION TEST BANK – ALL CHAPTERS
INCLUDED (9780323882316)
This premium exam resource provides comprehensive, high-
yield multiple-choice questions matching the 8th edition of
Burns' Pediatric Primary Care. Each question features an
NCLEX-style clinical scenario complete with the correct
answer and a deeply detailed, bolded rationale designed to
maximize retention. It serves as an essential, high-density
study guide perfectly structured to help nurse practitioner
students ace their pediatric clinical advanced management
exams.
Question 1
A nurse practitioner is reviewing local epidemiological data to implement an
intervention addressing the leading cause of death in children over the age
of 1 year in the United States. Which focus area should the intervention
target?
A. Congenital anomalies
B. Unintentional injuries
C. Malignant neoplasms
D. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
Answer: B
Rationale: Unintentional injuries, particularly motor vehicle accidents,
drownings, and firearm-related incidents, remain the leading cause of
mortality in children aged 1 to 19 years in the United States. While
,congenital anomalies are the leading cause of death in infants under 1 year
of age, accidental trauma surpasses it in older pediatric populations,
making injury prevention counseling a critical component of primary care.
Question 2
When evaluating the concept of the "social determinants of health" (SDOH)
during a well-child visit, which factor should the primary care provider
identify as having the most profound, pervasive impact on a child's long-
term health outcomes?
A. Access to specialized pediatric clinics
B. Family socioeconomic status and poverty
C. Total number of daily screen time hours
D. Participation in organized sports programs
Answer: B
Rationale: Socioeconomic status and systemic poverty are recognized as
foundational social determinants of health that heavily influence nutrition,
housing stability, environmental toxicant exposure, stress levels, and
overall developmental trajectory. While clinical access, screen time, and
physical activity are important, poverty acts as an overarching risk factor
that exacerbates nearly all other health disparities.
Chapter 3: Genetics
Question 3
A 4-year-old child presents with a history of severe developmental delay, a
friendly and cheerful demeanor with frequent laughing, an unsteady wide-
based gait, and microcephaly. The nurse practitioner suspects a genetic
deletion on chromosome 15. Which condition is most consistent with this
clinical presentation?
A. Prader-Willi syndrome
B. Angelman syndrome
C. Fragile X syndrome
D. Down syndrome
,Answer: B
Rationale: Angelman syndrome is a neurodevelopmental disorder typically
caused by a deletion or loss of function of the maternally inherited UBE3A
gene on chromosome 15. Classical features include severe developmental
delays, speech impairment, a uniquely happy and excitable demeanor
(frequent laughing/smiling), jerky movements, and an unstable, wide gait.
Prader-Willi involves a paternal deletion on the same chromosome and
presents primarily with hypotonia and hyperphagia.
Question 4
An infant is diagnosed with an autosomal recessive metabolic disorder. The
parents are healthy but are confirmed carriers. When providing genetic
counseling, what is the probability that their next biological child will be
completely unaffected and not a carrier of the mutated gene?
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%
Answer: A
Rationale: In autosomal recessive inheritance patterns, each pregnancy
carries a 25% (1 in 4) chance of inheriting two mutated alleles (affected
child), a 50% (2 in 4) chance of inheriting one mutated allele (unaffected
carrier child), and a 25% (1 in 4) chance of inheriting two normal alleles,
resulting in a child who is completely unaffected and not a carrier.
Chapter 6: Developmental Surveillance and Management
Question 5
During a routine 18-month well-child examination, a father notes that his
daughter is not yet using single words consistently and relies heavily on
pulling him by the hand to indicate her needs. What is the most appropriate
next step for the primary care provider?
A. Reassure the father that children develop at different rates and re-
, evaluate at 24 months.
B. Formally screen the child using a validated tool like the M-CHAT-R/F and
refer for a formal audiology evaluation.
C. Order a prompt CT scan of the brain to rule out structural neurological
deficits.
D. Recommend immediate speech therapy without investigating underlying
sensory etiologies.
Answer: B
Rationale: An 18-month-old child who lacks single-word speech and
exhibits limited communicative intent demonstrates a developmental red
flag that requires immediate objective investigation. Validated
developmental/autism screening tools (such as the M-CHAT-R/F) must be
administered. Additionally, a hearing impairment must always be ruled out
via a formal audiology evaluation whenever speech and language delays
are suspected.
Question 6
A pediatric nurse practitioner is assessing a healthy 9-month-old infant.
Which gross motor and fine motor milestones should the provider expect
the infant to demonstrate at this age?
A. Walking independently and building a tower of two blocks.
B. Sitting without support, pulling to stand, and utilizing a crude pincer
grasp.
C. Rolling from prone to supine and holding a rattle tightly.
D. Crawling up stairs and transferring objects perfectly from hand to hand.
Answer: B
Rationale: By 9 months of age, a typically developing infant should be able
to sit unsupported for extended periods, pull themselves up to a standing
position using furniture, and transition from a raking grasp to a crude pincer
grasp (using the thumb and index finger to pick up small objects). Walking
independently and building block towers are milestones characteristic of
older toddlers (12–15 months).
EDITION TEST BANK – ALL CHAPTERS
INCLUDED (9780323882316)
This premium exam resource provides comprehensive, high-
yield multiple-choice questions matching the 8th edition of
Burns' Pediatric Primary Care. Each question features an
NCLEX-style clinical scenario complete with the correct
answer and a deeply detailed, bolded rationale designed to
maximize retention. It serves as an essential, high-density
study guide perfectly structured to help nurse practitioner
students ace their pediatric clinical advanced management
exams.
Question 1
A nurse practitioner is reviewing local epidemiological data to implement an
intervention addressing the leading cause of death in children over the age
of 1 year in the United States. Which focus area should the intervention
target?
A. Congenital anomalies
B. Unintentional injuries
C. Malignant neoplasms
D. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
Answer: B
Rationale: Unintentional injuries, particularly motor vehicle accidents,
drownings, and firearm-related incidents, remain the leading cause of
mortality in children aged 1 to 19 years in the United States. While
,congenital anomalies are the leading cause of death in infants under 1 year
of age, accidental trauma surpasses it in older pediatric populations,
making injury prevention counseling a critical component of primary care.
Question 2
When evaluating the concept of the "social determinants of health" (SDOH)
during a well-child visit, which factor should the primary care provider
identify as having the most profound, pervasive impact on a child's long-
term health outcomes?
A. Access to specialized pediatric clinics
B. Family socioeconomic status and poverty
C. Total number of daily screen time hours
D. Participation in organized sports programs
Answer: B
Rationale: Socioeconomic status and systemic poverty are recognized as
foundational social determinants of health that heavily influence nutrition,
housing stability, environmental toxicant exposure, stress levels, and
overall developmental trajectory. While clinical access, screen time, and
physical activity are important, poverty acts as an overarching risk factor
that exacerbates nearly all other health disparities.
Chapter 3: Genetics
Question 3
A 4-year-old child presents with a history of severe developmental delay, a
friendly and cheerful demeanor with frequent laughing, an unsteady wide-
based gait, and microcephaly. The nurse practitioner suspects a genetic
deletion on chromosome 15. Which condition is most consistent with this
clinical presentation?
A. Prader-Willi syndrome
B. Angelman syndrome
C. Fragile X syndrome
D. Down syndrome
,Answer: B
Rationale: Angelman syndrome is a neurodevelopmental disorder typically
caused by a deletion or loss of function of the maternally inherited UBE3A
gene on chromosome 15. Classical features include severe developmental
delays, speech impairment, a uniquely happy and excitable demeanor
(frequent laughing/smiling), jerky movements, and an unstable, wide gait.
Prader-Willi involves a paternal deletion on the same chromosome and
presents primarily with hypotonia and hyperphagia.
Question 4
An infant is diagnosed with an autosomal recessive metabolic disorder. The
parents are healthy but are confirmed carriers. When providing genetic
counseling, what is the probability that their next biological child will be
completely unaffected and not a carrier of the mutated gene?
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%
Answer: A
Rationale: In autosomal recessive inheritance patterns, each pregnancy
carries a 25% (1 in 4) chance of inheriting two mutated alleles (affected
child), a 50% (2 in 4) chance of inheriting one mutated allele (unaffected
carrier child), and a 25% (1 in 4) chance of inheriting two normal alleles,
resulting in a child who is completely unaffected and not a carrier.
Chapter 6: Developmental Surveillance and Management
Question 5
During a routine 18-month well-child examination, a father notes that his
daughter is not yet using single words consistently and relies heavily on
pulling him by the hand to indicate her needs. What is the most appropriate
next step for the primary care provider?
A. Reassure the father that children develop at different rates and re-
, evaluate at 24 months.
B. Formally screen the child using a validated tool like the M-CHAT-R/F and
refer for a formal audiology evaluation.
C. Order a prompt CT scan of the brain to rule out structural neurological
deficits.
D. Recommend immediate speech therapy without investigating underlying
sensory etiologies.
Answer: B
Rationale: An 18-month-old child who lacks single-word speech and
exhibits limited communicative intent demonstrates a developmental red
flag that requires immediate objective investigation. Validated
developmental/autism screening tools (such as the M-CHAT-R/F) must be
administered. Additionally, a hearing impairment must always be ruled out
via a formal audiology evaluation whenever speech and language delays
are suspected.
Question 6
A pediatric nurse practitioner is assessing a healthy 9-month-old infant.
Which gross motor and fine motor milestones should the provider expect
the infant to demonstrate at this age?
A. Walking independently and building a tower of two blocks.
B. Sitting without support, pulling to stand, and utilizing a crude pincer
grasp.
C. Rolling from prone to supine and holding a rattle tightly.
D. Crawling up stairs and transferring objects perfectly from hand to hand.
Answer: B
Rationale: By 9 months of age, a typically developing infant should be able
to sit unsupported for extended periods, pull themselves up to a standing
position using furniture, and transition from a raking grasp to a crude pincer
grasp (using the thumb and index finger to pick up small objects). Walking
independently and building block towers are milestones characteristic of
older toddlers (12–15 months).
