UCONN NURSING FUNDAMENTALS FINAL EXAM
2026/2027: Actual Q&As with Rationales (NURS 3100 /
CEIN) - Verified Grade A Guide
This premium study resource contains 150 highly targeted, NCLEX-style practice
questions engineered explicitly for the University of Connecticut NURS 3100 and CEIN
Accelerated Nursing Fundamentals Final Exam. Every question features the correct
answer highlighted in bold italics alongside an in-depth clinical rationale mapping out
ADPIE prioritization, patient safety protocols, and medication administration. Formatted
with clean spacing and clear structural divisions, this guide is optimized for rapid self-
testing, conceptual mastery, and earning a top grade on your final.
1.A nurse is caring for a patient who is 2 hours post-operative and reports sudden, sharp
chest pain and shortness of breath. Which action should the nurse implement first?
A) Administer the ordered PRN pain medication
B) Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG)
C) Raise the head of the bed to high-Fowler's position
D) Document the findings in the electronic health record
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Raising the head of the bed immediately maximizes chest expansion, improves
diaphragmatic excursion, and optimizes oxygenation for a patient experiencing acute respiratory
distress. This independent nursing intervention takes priority before secondary diagnostic actions
or documentation.
2. The nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular (IM) injection of an antibiotic into the
ventrogluteal site. Which anatomical landmarks must the nurse palpate to correctly locate
this site?
A) The acromion process and the axillary line
B) The greater trochanter, anterior superior iliac spine, and iliac crest
C) The vastus lateralis muscle and the greater trochanter
D) The posterior superior iliac spine and the coccyx
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The ventrogluteal site is located by placing the palm over the greater trochanter, pointing
the index finger toward the anterior superior iliac spine, and extending the middle finger along the
iliac crest. This site is preferred for adults because it is free of major nerves and blood vessels.
3. While transferring a patient from the bed to a wheelchair, the patient reports feeling dizzy
and weak. The nurse notes the patient's skin is pale and diaphoretic. What is the most
, appropriate immediate action by the nurse?
A) Quickly complete the transfer to the wheelchair and lock the wheels
B) Instruct the patient to take deep breaths and hold them
C) Ease the patient back onto the bed or safely lower them to the floor
D) Leave the patient standing briefly to go call for assistance
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The patient is exhibiting signs of orthostatic hypotension and potential syncope. To
prevent a fall and ensure patient safety, the nurse must immediately lower the patient's center of
gravity by assisting them back into bed or easing them gently to the floor.
4. A nurse is reviewing a physician's medication order that reads: "Digoxin 0.25 mg PO daily."
The nurse notes that the medication administration record (MAR) does not specify the time
of administration. Which action should the nurse take?
A) Administer the medication at the standard morning dosing time
B) Ask another nurse to clarify when the drug is usually given
C) Contact the prescribing provider to clarify the complete order
D) Hold the medication entirely without notifying the provider
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A complete medication order must include the patient's name, drug name, dosage,
route, frequency, date/time ordered, and provider signature. Missing details require direct
clarification from the prescriber to fulfill the 6 Rights of Medication Administration.
5. An assistive personnel (AP) reports to the nurse that a patient’s automated blood pressure
reading is 168/98 mmHg. Which action should the nurse take first?
A) Instruct the AP to re-check the blood pressure in 30 minutes
B) Administer a PRN antihypertensive medication immediately
C) Re-assess the patient's blood pressure manually using the correct cuff size
D) Notify the healthcare provider of an acute hypertensive emergency
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When an abnormal or unexpected vital sign is reported by an AP, the nurse must directly
validate the data by re-assessing the patient manually. This ensures clinical accuracy before
implementing interventions or contacting the provider.
6. A nurse is caring for an older adult patient who has been on bed rest for four days. Which
clinical finding should the nurse identify as a primary complication of immobility?
A) Increased gastrointestinal motility and diarrhea
B) Erythema and non-blanchable warmth over the sacrum
C) Decreased heart rate and increased cardiac output
D) Increased lung compliance and clear breath sounds
Correct Answer: B
,Rationale: Immobility exerts prolonged mechanical pressure on bony prominences, restricting
localized blood flow. Non-blanchable erythema indicates a Stage 1 pressure injury, which is a
classic, preventable complication of prolonged bed rest.
7. A healthcare provider prescribes a 24-hour urine collection for a patient. Which instruction
must the nurse include when explaining the collection procedure to the patient?
A) Save the very first voided specimen at the start of the 24-hour window
B) Discard the first morning void, note the exact time, and save all subsequent urine
C) Keep the urine collection container at room temperature next to the bed
D) Stop the collection immediately if a single void is accidentally discarded
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A 24-hour urine collection begins by discarding the first morning void because this urine
has been retained in the bladder overnight. All urine voided over the next 24 hours must be
collected and kept refrigerated or on ice to prevent bacterial growth.
8. A nurse is entering a patient's room to perform an admission assessment. Which action
represents the most effective method to break the chain of infection before touching the
patient?
A) Wiping down the bedside table with a dry tissue
B) Performing hand hygiene with an alcohol-based rub for at least 20 seconds
C) Donning clean gloves prior to crossing the room threshold
D) Asking the patient if they have any infectious symptoms
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hand hygiene is the single most effective intervention to prevent the transmission of
microorganisms and break the chain of infection. Friction should be applied to all surfaces of the
hands for a minimum of 20 seconds.
9. A patient with a history of dysphagia is prescribed a mechanical soft diet with thickened
liquids. Which nursing action minimizes the risk of aspiration during meals?
A) Positioning the patient in a semi-Fowler's position at a 30-degree angle
B) Encouraging the patient to use a straw for all liquids
C) Placing food on the unaffected side of the mouth and inspecting for pocketing
D) Urging the patient to clear their throat frequently while talking and eating
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Placing food on the stronger, unaffected side of the mouth enhances bolus control and
swallowing efficacy. Checking for pocketing prevents retained food from being aspirated later.
Patients with dysphagia should sit fully upright at 90 degrees and avoid straws.
10. A nurse is evaluating a nursing student who is inserting an indwelling urinary catheter for a
female patient. Which action by the student requires immediate intervention by the nurse?
A) Cleaning the labia minora from top to bottom using a front-to-back motion
B) Securing the catheter tubing to the patient's inner thigh with a securement device
, C) Dropping the sterile catheter tip onto the unsterile bedside linen draping
D) Hanging the urinary drainage bag on the stationary framework of the bed
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Contaminating the sterile catheter tip breaches surgical asepsis guidelines and
significantly increases the risk of a Catheter-Associated Urinary Tract Infection (CAUTI). The nurse
must intervene immediately, halt the procedure, and obtain a new sterile kit.
11. A patient with an aggressive respiratory infection requires frequent suctioning. While
setting up the negative pressure vacuum suction regulator for an adult patient, the nurse
should safely adjust the pressure to which range?
A) 60 to 80 mmHg
B) 80 to 100 mmHg
C) 100 to 120 mmHg
D) 150 to 180 mmHg
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: For an adult patient, the standard safe wall suction pressure range is 100 to 120 mmHg.
Excessively high pressure can cause deep mucosal trauma, hypoxemia, and atelectasis, while
insufficient pressure will fail to clear dense secretions.
12. A nurse is performing an abdominal assessment on a patient reporting localized lower left
quadrant pain. In which sequence should the nurse execute the physical examination
steps?
A) Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation
B) Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation
C) Auscultation, Inspection, Palpation, Percussion
D) Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation, Inspection
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct sequence for an abdominal exam is inspection, auscultation, percussion,
and palpation. Auscultation is performed before percussion and palpation because manipulating
the abdominal wall can artificially alter bowel sounds.
13. An older adult patient is admitted with severe dehydration. The nurse notes that the
patient's oral mucous membranes are dry, and skin turgor exhibits tenting. Where is the
most reliable anatomical location for the nurse to assess skin turgor in an older adult?
A) The back of the hand (dorsum)
B) The volar aspect of the forearm
C) Over the sternum or below the clavicle
D) The anterior aspect of the thigh
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Due to the loss of dermal elasticity and subcutaneous fat associated with normal aging,
testing skin turgor on the back of the hand can yield false positives for dehydration. The skin over
2026/2027: Actual Q&As with Rationales (NURS 3100 /
CEIN) - Verified Grade A Guide
This premium study resource contains 150 highly targeted, NCLEX-style practice
questions engineered explicitly for the University of Connecticut NURS 3100 and CEIN
Accelerated Nursing Fundamentals Final Exam. Every question features the correct
answer highlighted in bold italics alongside an in-depth clinical rationale mapping out
ADPIE prioritization, patient safety protocols, and medication administration. Formatted
with clean spacing and clear structural divisions, this guide is optimized for rapid self-
testing, conceptual mastery, and earning a top grade on your final.
1.A nurse is caring for a patient who is 2 hours post-operative and reports sudden, sharp
chest pain and shortness of breath. Which action should the nurse implement first?
A) Administer the ordered PRN pain medication
B) Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG)
C) Raise the head of the bed to high-Fowler's position
D) Document the findings in the electronic health record
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Raising the head of the bed immediately maximizes chest expansion, improves
diaphragmatic excursion, and optimizes oxygenation for a patient experiencing acute respiratory
distress. This independent nursing intervention takes priority before secondary diagnostic actions
or documentation.
2. The nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular (IM) injection of an antibiotic into the
ventrogluteal site. Which anatomical landmarks must the nurse palpate to correctly locate
this site?
A) The acromion process and the axillary line
B) The greater trochanter, anterior superior iliac spine, and iliac crest
C) The vastus lateralis muscle and the greater trochanter
D) The posterior superior iliac spine and the coccyx
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The ventrogluteal site is located by placing the palm over the greater trochanter, pointing
the index finger toward the anterior superior iliac spine, and extending the middle finger along the
iliac crest. This site is preferred for adults because it is free of major nerves and blood vessels.
3. While transferring a patient from the bed to a wheelchair, the patient reports feeling dizzy
and weak. The nurse notes the patient's skin is pale and diaphoretic. What is the most
, appropriate immediate action by the nurse?
A) Quickly complete the transfer to the wheelchair and lock the wheels
B) Instruct the patient to take deep breaths and hold them
C) Ease the patient back onto the bed or safely lower them to the floor
D) Leave the patient standing briefly to go call for assistance
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The patient is exhibiting signs of orthostatic hypotension and potential syncope. To
prevent a fall and ensure patient safety, the nurse must immediately lower the patient's center of
gravity by assisting them back into bed or easing them gently to the floor.
4. A nurse is reviewing a physician's medication order that reads: "Digoxin 0.25 mg PO daily."
The nurse notes that the medication administration record (MAR) does not specify the time
of administration. Which action should the nurse take?
A) Administer the medication at the standard morning dosing time
B) Ask another nurse to clarify when the drug is usually given
C) Contact the prescribing provider to clarify the complete order
D) Hold the medication entirely without notifying the provider
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A complete medication order must include the patient's name, drug name, dosage,
route, frequency, date/time ordered, and provider signature. Missing details require direct
clarification from the prescriber to fulfill the 6 Rights of Medication Administration.
5. An assistive personnel (AP) reports to the nurse that a patient’s automated blood pressure
reading is 168/98 mmHg. Which action should the nurse take first?
A) Instruct the AP to re-check the blood pressure in 30 minutes
B) Administer a PRN antihypertensive medication immediately
C) Re-assess the patient's blood pressure manually using the correct cuff size
D) Notify the healthcare provider of an acute hypertensive emergency
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When an abnormal or unexpected vital sign is reported by an AP, the nurse must directly
validate the data by re-assessing the patient manually. This ensures clinical accuracy before
implementing interventions or contacting the provider.
6. A nurse is caring for an older adult patient who has been on bed rest for four days. Which
clinical finding should the nurse identify as a primary complication of immobility?
A) Increased gastrointestinal motility and diarrhea
B) Erythema and non-blanchable warmth over the sacrum
C) Decreased heart rate and increased cardiac output
D) Increased lung compliance and clear breath sounds
Correct Answer: B
,Rationale: Immobility exerts prolonged mechanical pressure on bony prominences, restricting
localized blood flow. Non-blanchable erythema indicates a Stage 1 pressure injury, which is a
classic, preventable complication of prolonged bed rest.
7. A healthcare provider prescribes a 24-hour urine collection for a patient. Which instruction
must the nurse include when explaining the collection procedure to the patient?
A) Save the very first voided specimen at the start of the 24-hour window
B) Discard the first morning void, note the exact time, and save all subsequent urine
C) Keep the urine collection container at room temperature next to the bed
D) Stop the collection immediately if a single void is accidentally discarded
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A 24-hour urine collection begins by discarding the first morning void because this urine
has been retained in the bladder overnight. All urine voided over the next 24 hours must be
collected and kept refrigerated or on ice to prevent bacterial growth.
8. A nurse is entering a patient's room to perform an admission assessment. Which action
represents the most effective method to break the chain of infection before touching the
patient?
A) Wiping down the bedside table with a dry tissue
B) Performing hand hygiene with an alcohol-based rub for at least 20 seconds
C) Donning clean gloves prior to crossing the room threshold
D) Asking the patient if they have any infectious symptoms
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hand hygiene is the single most effective intervention to prevent the transmission of
microorganisms and break the chain of infection. Friction should be applied to all surfaces of the
hands for a minimum of 20 seconds.
9. A patient with a history of dysphagia is prescribed a mechanical soft diet with thickened
liquids. Which nursing action minimizes the risk of aspiration during meals?
A) Positioning the patient in a semi-Fowler's position at a 30-degree angle
B) Encouraging the patient to use a straw for all liquids
C) Placing food on the unaffected side of the mouth and inspecting for pocketing
D) Urging the patient to clear their throat frequently while talking and eating
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Placing food on the stronger, unaffected side of the mouth enhances bolus control and
swallowing efficacy. Checking for pocketing prevents retained food from being aspirated later.
Patients with dysphagia should sit fully upright at 90 degrees and avoid straws.
10. A nurse is evaluating a nursing student who is inserting an indwelling urinary catheter for a
female patient. Which action by the student requires immediate intervention by the nurse?
A) Cleaning the labia minora from top to bottom using a front-to-back motion
B) Securing the catheter tubing to the patient's inner thigh with a securement device
, C) Dropping the sterile catheter tip onto the unsterile bedside linen draping
D) Hanging the urinary drainage bag on the stationary framework of the bed
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Contaminating the sterile catheter tip breaches surgical asepsis guidelines and
significantly increases the risk of a Catheter-Associated Urinary Tract Infection (CAUTI). The nurse
must intervene immediately, halt the procedure, and obtain a new sterile kit.
11. A patient with an aggressive respiratory infection requires frequent suctioning. While
setting up the negative pressure vacuum suction regulator for an adult patient, the nurse
should safely adjust the pressure to which range?
A) 60 to 80 mmHg
B) 80 to 100 mmHg
C) 100 to 120 mmHg
D) 150 to 180 mmHg
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: For an adult patient, the standard safe wall suction pressure range is 100 to 120 mmHg.
Excessively high pressure can cause deep mucosal trauma, hypoxemia, and atelectasis, while
insufficient pressure will fail to clear dense secretions.
12. A nurse is performing an abdominal assessment on a patient reporting localized lower left
quadrant pain. In which sequence should the nurse execute the physical examination
steps?
A) Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation
B) Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation
C) Auscultation, Inspection, Palpation, Percussion
D) Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation, Inspection
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct sequence for an abdominal exam is inspection, auscultation, percussion,
and palpation. Auscultation is performed before percussion and palpation because manipulating
the abdominal wall can artificially alter bowel sounds.
13. An older adult patient is admitted with severe dehydration. The nurse notes that the
patient's oral mucous membranes are dry, and skin turgor exhibits tenting. Where is the
most reliable anatomical location for the nurse to assess skin turgor in an older adult?
A) The back of the hand (dorsum)
B) The volar aspect of the forearm
C) Over the sternum or below the clavicle
D) The anterior aspect of the thigh
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Due to the loss of dermal elasticity and subcutaneous fat associated with normal aging,
testing skin turgor on the back of the hand can yield false positives for dehydration. The skin over
