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Advanced Pathophysiology Exam 1 – Questions and Answers
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to
| 2026 Newest Update | Grade A+
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A 59-year-old with longstanding hypertension collapses while gardening. On
arrival he’s unconscious; CT shows a deep intracerebral hemorrhage in the basal
ganglia. Chronic hypertension most likely produced which vascular change that
predisposed to this bleed?
A. Atherosclerotic plaque ulceration
B. Lipohyalinosis of small penetrating arteries ⬛
C. Mycotic aneurysm formation
D. Arteriovenous malformation rupture
Answer: B
An otherwise healthy young adult suddenly develops severe unilateral calf pain
and swelling after a long flight; duplex ultrasound confirms DVT. Which
immediate pathophysiologic event most increases risk of subsequent pulmonary
embolism?
A. Endothelial proliferation at the thrombus site
B. Embolization of a portion of the venous thrombus into the pulmonary
circulation ⬛
C. Conversion of thrombus into organized scar tissue
D. Localized vasospasm within the deep veins
Answer: B
Serum labs: pH 7.25, HCO₃⁻ 12 mEq/L, PaCO₂ 30 mmHg. A patient with vomiting
for 2 days then poor intake presents with these values. Which is the best
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interpretation?
tu
A. Primary metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation ⬛
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B. Primary metabolic alkalosis with respiratory compensation
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C. Primary respiratory acidosis with renal compensation
D. Mixed metabolic alkalosis and respiratory acidosis
Answer: A
A formerly ambulatory patient with sudden onset bilateral lower-limb flaccid
paralysis after a transient diarrheal illness has areflexia and elevated CSF protein
with normal cell count. Which mechanism best explains his neuropathy?
A. Autoantibody-mediated blockade at the neuromuscular junction
B. Immune-mediated demyelination of peripheral nerves (postinfectious) ⬛
C. Primary motor neuron degeneration within spinal cord anterior horns
D. Ischemic injury to the peripheral nerve vascular supply
Answer: B
Diffusion-weighted MRI of a stroke patient shows a well-defined embolic infarct
in the left MCA territory. Which physiologic process is most responsible for
irreversible neuronal death in the infarct core?
A. Excessive mitochondrial biogenesis
B. Failure of ATP-dependent ion pumps causing intracellular calcium overload and
excitotoxicity ⬛
C. Increased cerebral venous outflow leading to edema
D. Activation of peripheral immune cells only
Answer: B
A child with severe burns covering 40% total body surface area becomes
hypotensive and tachycardic with rising hematocrit and BUN. Which phenomenon
@wisetutor
1|Page
se
Advanced Pathophysiology Exam 1 – Questions and Answers
tu
to
| 2026 Newest Update | Grade A+
r
A 59-year-old with longstanding hypertension collapses while gardening. On
arrival he’s unconscious; CT shows a deep intracerebral hemorrhage in the basal
ganglia. Chronic hypertension most likely produced which vascular change that
predisposed to this bleed?
A. Atherosclerotic plaque ulceration
B. Lipohyalinosis of small penetrating arteries ⬛
C. Mycotic aneurysm formation
D. Arteriovenous malformation rupture
Answer: B
An otherwise healthy young adult suddenly develops severe unilateral calf pain
and swelling after a long flight; duplex ultrasound confirms DVT. Which
immediate pathophysiologic event most increases risk of subsequent pulmonary
embolism?
A. Endothelial proliferation at the thrombus site
B. Embolization of a portion of the venous thrombus into the pulmonary
circulation ⬛
C. Conversion of thrombus into organized scar tissue
D. Localized vasospasm within the deep veins
Answer: B
Serum labs: pH 7.25, HCO₃⁻ 12 mEq/L, PaCO₂ 30 mmHg. A patient with vomiting
for 2 days then poor intake presents with these values. Which is the best
@wisetutor
, wi
2|Page
se
interpretation?
tu
A. Primary metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation ⬛
to
B. Primary metabolic alkalosis with respiratory compensation
r
C. Primary respiratory acidosis with renal compensation
D. Mixed metabolic alkalosis and respiratory acidosis
Answer: A
A formerly ambulatory patient with sudden onset bilateral lower-limb flaccid
paralysis after a transient diarrheal illness has areflexia and elevated CSF protein
with normal cell count. Which mechanism best explains his neuropathy?
A. Autoantibody-mediated blockade at the neuromuscular junction
B. Immune-mediated demyelination of peripheral nerves (postinfectious) ⬛
C. Primary motor neuron degeneration within spinal cord anterior horns
D. Ischemic injury to the peripheral nerve vascular supply
Answer: B
Diffusion-weighted MRI of a stroke patient shows a well-defined embolic infarct
in the left MCA territory. Which physiologic process is most responsible for
irreversible neuronal death in the infarct core?
A. Excessive mitochondrial biogenesis
B. Failure of ATP-dependent ion pumps causing intracellular calcium overload and
excitotoxicity ⬛
C. Increased cerebral venous outflow leading to edema
D. Activation of peripheral immune cells only
Answer: B
A child with severe burns covering 40% total body surface area becomes
hypotensive and tachycardic with rising hematocrit and BUN. Which phenomenon
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