BIWS DCF Exam Questions with Correct Answers| New Update 100% Verified by Experts
What's the basic concept behind a Discounted Cash Flow analysis? The concept is that you
value a company based on the present value of its Free Cash Flows far into the future.
You divide the future into a "near future" period of 5-10 years and then calculate, project,
discount, and add up those Free Cash Flows; and then there's also a "far future" period for
everything beyond that, which you can't estimate as precisely, but which you can approximate
using different approaches.
You need to discount everything back to its present value because money today is worth more
than money tomorrow.
Walk me through a DCF. "A DCF values a company based on the Present Value of its Cash
Flows and the Present Value of its Terminal Value.
First, you project a company's financials using assumptions for revenue growth, margins, and
the Change in Operating Assets and Liabilities; then you calculate Free Cash Flow for each year,
which you discount and sum up to get to the Net Present Value. The Discount Rate is usually
the Weighted Average Cost of Capital.
Once you have the present value of the Free Cash Flows, you determine the company's
Terminal Value, using either the Multiples Method or the Gordon Growth Method, and then
you discount that back to its Net Present Value using the Discount Rate.
Finally, you add the two together to determine the company's Enterprise Value."
Walk me through how you get from Revenue to Free Cash Flow in the projections. First,
confirm that they are asking for Unlevered Free Cash Flow (Free Cash Flow to Firm). If so:
Subtract COGS and Operating Expenses from Revenue to get to Operating Income (EBIT) - or
just use the EBIT margin you've assumed.
,Then, multiply by (1 - Tax Rate), add back Depreciation, Amortization, and other non-cash
charges, and factor in the Change in Operating Assets and Liabilities. If Assets increase by more
than Liabilities, this is a negative; otherwise it's positive.
Finally, subtract Capital Expenditures to calculate Unlevered Free Cash Flow.
Levered Free Cash Flow (FCFE) is similar, but you must also subtract the Net Interest Expense
before multiplying by (1 - Tax Rate), and you must also subtract Mandatory Debt Repayments at
the end.
What's the point of Free Cash Flow, anyway? What are you trying to do? The idea is that
you're replicating the Cash Flow Statement, but only including recurring, predictable items. And
in the case of Unlevered Free Cash Flow, you also exclude the impact of Debt entirely.
That's why everything in Cash Flow from Investing except for CapEx is excluded, and why the
entire Cash Flow from Financing section is excluded (the only exception being Mandatory Debt
Repayments for Levered FCF).
Why do you use 5 or 10 years for the "near future" DCF projections? That's about as far as
you can reasonably predict for most companies. Less than 5 years would be too short to be
useful, and more than 10 years is too difficult to project for most companies.
Is there a valid reason why we might sometimes project 10 years or more anyway? You
might sometimes do this if it's a cyclical industry, such as chemicals, because it may be
important to show the entire cycle from low to high.
What do you usually use for the Discount Rate? In a Unlevered DCF analysis, you use WACC
(Weighted Average Cost of Capital), which reflects the "Cost" of Equity, Debt, and Preferred
Stock. In a Levered DCF analysis, you use Cost of Equity instead.
If I'm working with a public company in a DCF, how do I move from Enterprise Value to its
Implied per Share Value? Once you get to Enterprise Value, ADD Cash and then SUBTRACT
, Debt, Preferred Stock, and Noncontrolling Interests (and any other debt-like items) to get to
Equity Value.
Then you divide by the company's share count (factoring in all dilutive securities) to determine
the implied per-share price.
Let's say we do this and find that the Implied per Share Value is $10.00. The company's current
share price is $5.00. What does this mean? By itself, this does not mean much - you have to
look at a range of outputs from a DCF rather than just a single number. So you would see what
the Implied per Share Value is under different assumptions for the Discount Rate, revenue
growth, margins, and so on.
If you consistently find that it's greater than the company's current share price, then the
analysis might tell you that the company is undervalued; it might be overvalued if it's
consistently less than the current share price across all ranges.
An alternative to the DCF is the Dividend Discount Model (DDM). How is it different in the
general case (i.e. for a normal company, not a commercial bank or insurance firm?) The
setup is similar: you still project revenue and expenses over a 5-10 year period, and you still
calculate Terminal Value.
The difference is that you do not calculate Free Cash Flow - instead, you stop at Net Income and
assume that Dividends Issued are a percentage of Net Income, and then you discount those
Dividends back to their present value using the Cost of Equity.
Then, you add those up and add them to the present value of the Terminal Value, which you
might base on a P / E multiple instead.
Finally, a Dividend Discount Model gets you the company's Equity Value rather than its
Enterprise Value since you're using metrics that include interest income and expense.
Let's talk more about how you calculate Free Cash Flow. Is it always correct to leave out most of
the Cash Flow from Investing section and all of the Cash Flow from Financing section? Most
What's the basic concept behind a Discounted Cash Flow analysis? The concept is that you
value a company based on the present value of its Free Cash Flows far into the future.
You divide the future into a "near future" period of 5-10 years and then calculate, project,
discount, and add up those Free Cash Flows; and then there's also a "far future" period for
everything beyond that, which you can't estimate as precisely, but which you can approximate
using different approaches.
You need to discount everything back to its present value because money today is worth more
than money tomorrow.
Walk me through a DCF. "A DCF values a company based on the Present Value of its Cash
Flows and the Present Value of its Terminal Value.
First, you project a company's financials using assumptions for revenue growth, margins, and
the Change in Operating Assets and Liabilities; then you calculate Free Cash Flow for each year,
which you discount and sum up to get to the Net Present Value. The Discount Rate is usually
the Weighted Average Cost of Capital.
Once you have the present value of the Free Cash Flows, you determine the company's
Terminal Value, using either the Multiples Method or the Gordon Growth Method, and then
you discount that back to its Net Present Value using the Discount Rate.
Finally, you add the two together to determine the company's Enterprise Value."
Walk me through how you get from Revenue to Free Cash Flow in the projections. First,
confirm that they are asking for Unlevered Free Cash Flow (Free Cash Flow to Firm). If so:
Subtract COGS and Operating Expenses from Revenue to get to Operating Income (EBIT) - or
just use the EBIT margin you've assumed.
,Then, multiply by (1 - Tax Rate), add back Depreciation, Amortization, and other non-cash
charges, and factor in the Change in Operating Assets and Liabilities. If Assets increase by more
than Liabilities, this is a negative; otherwise it's positive.
Finally, subtract Capital Expenditures to calculate Unlevered Free Cash Flow.
Levered Free Cash Flow (FCFE) is similar, but you must also subtract the Net Interest Expense
before multiplying by (1 - Tax Rate), and you must also subtract Mandatory Debt Repayments at
the end.
What's the point of Free Cash Flow, anyway? What are you trying to do? The idea is that
you're replicating the Cash Flow Statement, but only including recurring, predictable items. And
in the case of Unlevered Free Cash Flow, you also exclude the impact of Debt entirely.
That's why everything in Cash Flow from Investing except for CapEx is excluded, and why the
entire Cash Flow from Financing section is excluded (the only exception being Mandatory Debt
Repayments for Levered FCF).
Why do you use 5 or 10 years for the "near future" DCF projections? That's about as far as
you can reasonably predict for most companies. Less than 5 years would be too short to be
useful, and more than 10 years is too difficult to project for most companies.
Is there a valid reason why we might sometimes project 10 years or more anyway? You
might sometimes do this if it's a cyclical industry, such as chemicals, because it may be
important to show the entire cycle from low to high.
What do you usually use for the Discount Rate? In a Unlevered DCF analysis, you use WACC
(Weighted Average Cost of Capital), which reflects the "Cost" of Equity, Debt, and Preferred
Stock. In a Levered DCF analysis, you use Cost of Equity instead.
If I'm working with a public company in a DCF, how do I move from Enterprise Value to its
Implied per Share Value? Once you get to Enterprise Value, ADD Cash and then SUBTRACT
, Debt, Preferred Stock, and Noncontrolling Interests (and any other debt-like items) to get to
Equity Value.
Then you divide by the company's share count (factoring in all dilutive securities) to determine
the implied per-share price.
Let's say we do this and find that the Implied per Share Value is $10.00. The company's current
share price is $5.00. What does this mean? By itself, this does not mean much - you have to
look at a range of outputs from a DCF rather than just a single number. So you would see what
the Implied per Share Value is under different assumptions for the Discount Rate, revenue
growth, margins, and so on.
If you consistently find that it's greater than the company's current share price, then the
analysis might tell you that the company is undervalued; it might be overvalued if it's
consistently less than the current share price across all ranges.
An alternative to the DCF is the Dividend Discount Model (DDM). How is it different in the
general case (i.e. for a normal company, not a commercial bank or insurance firm?) The
setup is similar: you still project revenue and expenses over a 5-10 year period, and you still
calculate Terminal Value.
The difference is that you do not calculate Free Cash Flow - instead, you stop at Net Income and
assume that Dividends Issued are a percentage of Net Income, and then you discount those
Dividends back to their present value using the Cost of Equity.
Then, you add those up and add them to the present value of the Terminal Value, which you
might base on a P / E multiple instead.
Finally, a Dividend Discount Model gets you the company's Equity Value rather than its
Enterprise Value since you're using metrics that include interest income and expense.
Let's talk more about how you calculate Free Cash Flow. Is it always correct to leave out most of
the Cash Flow from Investing section and all of the Cash Flow from Financing section? Most
