NR 324 FINAL EXAM EXAM QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS | 100% PASS (A+ CERTIFIED)

NR 324 FINAL EXAM EXAM QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS | 100% PASS (A+ CERTIFIED) 1. Which organ is considered the "metabolic factory" of the body Liver 2. What enzyme is secreted in the mouth that starts to digestive carbohydrates immediately Salivary amylase 3. Which inflammatory bowel disease produces "skip" lesions Crohn's disease 4. During periods of hypoglycemia, what is secreted by the liver to raise sugar levels Glycogen 5. Which organ has endocrine (hormonal) and exocrine (digestive) functions - Pancreas 6. Which organ absorbs vitamins, nutrients, meds and is involved in the immune system Small intestine 7. Which of the following describes occult blood Microscopic blood in the stool 8. Which of the following describes the dark tarry stool that accompanies an upper GI bleed Melena 9. What term refers to difficulty swallowing Dysphagia 10. Which of the following is not recommended for patients with dysphagia - Straws 11. What is caused by an incompetent LES, increased abd. pressure, or delayed gastric emptying: Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) 12. In peptic ulcer disease, what is broken down that causes the ulcers to occur Mucosal barrier 13. What is commonly found in the stomach that contributes to peptic ulcers H. pylori 14. Which of the following is not a complication of peptic ulcers Diarrhea 15. Which medication is an infusion used for patients with an upper GI bleed - Ocreotide (Sandostatin) 16. Which med class can inhibit lots of other meds & should be taken at least 1 hour before/after other meds Antacids 17. A patient is experiencing cholelithiasis, what type of jaundice are they at risk for Posthepatic 18. What assessment finding is positive in a patient with cholecystitis Murphy's sign 19. What condition is caused by cirrhosis Esophageal varices 20. Which medication coats stomach lining and is used in patients with gastritis, GERD, and peptic ulcer disease Sucralfate (Carafate) 21. A client may have pancreatitis, which labs will the nurse (thats you!) check? (2 right answers): Amylase & lipase 22. What is a serious complication of diverticular disease, pancreatitis, and appendicitis Peritonitis 23. Which condition is related to psychological distress and symptoms are relieved after a bowel movement Irritable bowel syndrome 24. Ulcerative colitis starts in the rectum and spreads to the _______ ________.: Large intestine 25. What is the treatment for an advanced ileus Ileostomy/colostomy 26. What EKG change will occur with complete occlusion of the coronary artery & is evidence of tissue injury ST elevation 27. A pt had a cardiac cath via the femoral artery, which assessment is most important Dorsalis pedis pulse 28. Which medication is useful in acute decompensated heart failure, but not mild heart failure Morphine 29. A clients heart rate is 28 bpm, atropine didn't work, what is the next treatment Pacemaker 30. What lab level will increase when a patient has heart failure B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) 31. How do calcium channel blockers work Decrease cardiac contractility 32. Which medication is safe to take with erectile dysfunction medications Metoprolol (Lopressor) 33. A client has ascites, JVD, and peripheral edema. What sided heart failure are they experiencing Right 34. Which diagnostic tool is most helpful in measuring heart function in heart failure patients Echocardiogram (ECHO) 35. What electrolyte is most likely deficient in a patient with Torsades de Point Magnesium 36. A client had a heart stent after having an MI, what med MUST they be on to prevent occlusion of the stent Anticoagulant (Plavix, Brilinta, etc.) 37. A patients heart can't contract forcefully enough to expel blood out of the heart, what type of heart failure is this Systolic 38. Which condition causes cor pulmonale (right sided heart failure) Pulmonary hypertension 39. Which medication is used to treatment dysrhythmias, but can caused a dangerous prolonged QT interval Amiodarone 40. Which dysrhythmia is defined by a heart rate > 150 bpm & is treated with adenosine Supraventricular tachycardia 41. What medication treats symptomatic bradycardia Atropine 42. Which medication can help treat all dysrhythmias except for sinus brady & sinus tach Amiodarone 43. A client is experiencing ventricular fibrillation, what is the treatment Defibrillation 44. Which dysrhythmia always requires defibrillation Ventricular fibrillation 45. When a patient is having premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) what do we assess first SPO2 46. Which electrolyte imbalance can cause Torsades de Point Magnesium 47. Which rhythm requires an anticoagulant to prevent emboli Atrial fibrillation 48. Which rhythm involves abnormal P waves Atrial fibrillation 49. A client has a pulse and is experiencing ventricular tachycardia, what is the treatment Cardioversion 50. A client with afib has taken medications & has gotten a cardioversion without success. What is the next treatment option: Ablation 51. Abnormalities in which measurement can cause Torsades de Point QT interval 52. Which medication is given IV push in cardiac arrest Epinephrine 53. Which rhythm does not require defibrillation Pulseless electrical activity (PEA) 54. Which rhythm could be caused by stimulation of the vagal nerve Sinus bradycardia 55. What labs are used to assess pancreatic function Amylase Lipase 56. What labs are used to assess liver function AST/ALT Bilirubin Albumin 57. What labs are used to assess blood clotting PT INR PTT 58. What protein labs is the liver responsible for Albumin* C Reactive 59. What is the appropriate pH of stomach contents in regard to enteral feedings Below 5 60. What should you assess for prior to giving tube feedings Residual 61. When should you hold tube feedings If residual is greater than 100 62. When would a patient have a J tube in their jejunum Aspiration Reflux