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Test Bank for:
NURS 344 - Health Assessment
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Solved MCQS of All Chapters
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NURS 344 - Health Assessment
Solved MCQS of All Chapters
Q1. Which of the following is the correct sequence for a general head-to-toe physical exam on
an adult (standard order)?
A) Inspect → Percuss → Auscultate → Palpate
B) Inspect → Palpate → Auscultate → Percuss
C) Inspect → Auscultate → Palpate → Percuss
D) Inspect → Palpate → Percuss → Auscultate
Answer: D.
Explanation: Standard sequence: Inspect, Palpate, Percuss, Auscultate, except abdominal exam
(auscultate before palpation/percussion). Answer D is correct.
Q2. When performing an abdominal exam, why should auscultation be done before palpation or
percussion?
A) To reduce patient anxiety
B) To prevent alteration of bowel sounds by palpation/percussion
C) Because palpation is painful
D) There is no difference in order
Answer: B.
Explanation: Palpation/percussion can stimulate bowel activity and alter baseline bowel sounds;
hence auscultate first. Answer B is correct.
Q4. A patient’s radial pulse is 46 beats/min and weak. Which term best describes this pulse?
A) Thready (weak) and bradycardic
B) Bounding
C) Regular and strong
D) Irregularly irregular
Answer: A.
Explanation: Rate <60 = bradycardia; weak/thready describes low amplitude. Answer A is
correct.
Q5. The first heart sound (S1) corresponds to which cardiac event?
A) Closure of aortic and pulmonic valves
B) Closure of mitral and tricuspid valves (beginning of systole)
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C) Rapid ventricular filling
D) Atrial contraction
Answer: B.
Explanation: S1 = AV valves (mitral/tricuspid) closing at systole onset. Answer B is correct.
Q6. The proper technique to assess tactile fremitus is:
A) Using the diaphragm of the stethoscope
B) Palpating with the palm while patient coughs “99”
C) Percussing the chest bilaterally while patient breathes deeply
D) Observing chest rise and fall
Answer: B.
Explanation: Tactile fremitus assessed by palpation while patient repeats a phrase (e.g., “99”);
increased with consolidation. Answer B is correct.
Q7. Dullness to percussion over a lung field suggests:
A) Normal aeration
B) Air trapping (emphysema)
C) Consolidation or pleural effusion
D) Hyperinflation
Answer: C.
Explanation: Dull percussion often indicates fluid or solid tissue replacing air (consolidation,
effusion). Answer C is correct.
Q3. Normal adult resting respiratory rate range is approximately:
A) 6–10 breaths/min
B) 12–20 breaths/min
C) 20–28 breaths/min
D) 28–36 breaths/min
Answer: B.
Explanation: Typical adult RR is 12–20 breaths/min. Answer B is correct.
Q8. Which breath sound is high-pitched, continuous, and heard mostly during expiration —
often due to narrowed airways?
A) Vesicular
B) Bronchial
C) Crackles (rales)
D) Wheeze (sibilant)
Answer: D.
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Explanation: Wheezes are continuous, musical, usually expiratory and from narrowed airways.
Answer B is correct.
Q9. When assessing peripheral pulses, a capillary refill time longer than ___ seconds suggests
poor perfusion in adults.
A) 1 second
B) 2 seconds
C) 3 seconds
D) 5 seconds
Answer: C.
Explanation: >3 seconds indicates compromised peripheral perfusion (some guidelines use >2
sec in children; adult cutoff commonly ~3 sec). Answer C is correct.
Q10. While auscultating the abdomen, you hear high-pitched tinkling sounds and absent bowel
sounds for a prolonged period. This most suggests:
A) Early small bowel obstruction
B) Normal bowel activity
C) Constipation only
D) Peptic ulcer disease
Answer: A.
Explanation: High-pitched tinkling + absent/very hyperactive then silent sounds suggest
obstruction. Answer A is correct.
Q11. Which assessment finding is most consistent with increased intracranial pressure?
A) Constricted reactive pupils bilaterally
B) Irregular respirations, bradycardia, and widening pulse pressure (Cushing triad)
C) Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes only
D) Unequal leg strength
Answer: B.
Explanation: Cushing triad (hypertension with wide pulse pressure, bradycardia, irregular
respirations) indicates increased ICP. Answer B is correct.
Q12. For testing cranial nerve II (optic), the examiner should perform:
A) Pupillary light reflex only
B) Visual acuity and visual fields by confrontation
C) Jaw strength testing
D) Shoulder shrug against resistance
Answer: B.
Explanation: CN II = visual acuity and fields (confrontation); pupillary reflex involves CN III.
Answer B is correct.
A+
Test Bank for:
NURS 344 - Health Assessment
BSN
Solved MCQS of All Chapters
Stuvia - AllTestsBank
A+
,AllTestsBank
NURS 344 - Health Assessment
Solved MCQS of All Chapters
Q1. Which of the following is the correct sequence for a general head-to-toe physical exam on
an adult (standard order)?
A) Inspect → Percuss → Auscultate → Palpate
B) Inspect → Palpate → Auscultate → Percuss
C) Inspect → Auscultate → Palpate → Percuss
D) Inspect → Palpate → Percuss → Auscultate
Answer: D.
Explanation: Standard sequence: Inspect, Palpate, Percuss, Auscultate, except abdominal exam
(auscultate before palpation/percussion). Answer D is correct.
Q2. When performing an abdominal exam, why should auscultation be done before palpation or
percussion?
A) To reduce patient anxiety
B) To prevent alteration of bowel sounds by palpation/percussion
C) Because palpation is painful
D) There is no difference in order
Answer: B.
Explanation: Palpation/percussion can stimulate bowel activity and alter baseline bowel sounds;
hence auscultate first. Answer B is correct.
Q4. A patient’s radial pulse is 46 beats/min and weak. Which term best describes this pulse?
A) Thready (weak) and bradycardic
B) Bounding
C) Regular and strong
D) Irregularly irregular
Answer: A.
Explanation: Rate <60 = bradycardia; weak/thready describes low amplitude. Answer A is
correct.
Q5. The first heart sound (S1) corresponds to which cardiac event?
A) Closure of aortic and pulmonic valves
B) Closure of mitral and tricuspid valves (beginning of systole)
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C) Rapid ventricular filling
D) Atrial contraction
Answer: B.
Explanation: S1 = AV valves (mitral/tricuspid) closing at systole onset. Answer B is correct.
Q6. The proper technique to assess tactile fremitus is:
A) Using the diaphragm of the stethoscope
B) Palpating with the palm while patient coughs “99”
C) Percussing the chest bilaterally while patient breathes deeply
D) Observing chest rise and fall
Answer: B.
Explanation: Tactile fremitus assessed by palpation while patient repeats a phrase (e.g., “99”);
increased with consolidation. Answer B is correct.
Q7. Dullness to percussion over a lung field suggests:
A) Normal aeration
B) Air trapping (emphysema)
C) Consolidation or pleural effusion
D) Hyperinflation
Answer: C.
Explanation: Dull percussion often indicates fluid or solid tissue replacing air (consolidation,
effusion). Answer C is correct.
Q3. Normal adult resting respiratory rate range is approximately:
A) 6–10 breaths/min
B) 12–20 breaths/min
C) 20–28 breaths/min
D) 28–36 breaths/min
Answer: B.
Explanation: Typical adult RR is 12–20 breaths/min. Answer B is correct.
Q8. Which breath sound is high-pitched, continuous, and heard mostly during expiration —
often due to narrowed airways?
A) Vesicular
B) Bronchial
C) Crackles (rales)
D) Wheeze (sibilant)
Answer: D.
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Explanation: Wheezes are continuous, musical, usually expiratory and from narrowed airways.
Answer B is correct.
Q9. When assessing peripheral pulses, a capillary refill time longer than ___ seconds suggests
poor perfusion in adults.
A) 1 second
B) 2 seconds
C) 3 seconds
D) 5 seconds
Answer: C.
Explanation: >3 seconds indicates compromised peripheral perfusion (some guidelines use >2
sec in children; adult cutoff commonly ~3 sec). Answer C is correct.
Q10. While auscultating the abdomen, you hear high-pitched tinkling sounds and absent bowel
sounds for a prolonged period. This most suggests:
A) Early small bowel obstruction
B) Normal bowel activity
C) Constipation only
D) Peptic ulcer disease
Answer: A.
Explanation: High-pitched tinkling + absent/very hyperactive then silent sounds suggest
obstruction. Answer A is correct.
Q11. Which assessment finding is most consistent with increased intracranial pressure?
A) Constricted reactive pupils bilaterally
B) Irregular respirations, bradycardia, and widening pulse pressure (Cushing triad)
C) Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes only
D) Unequal leg strength
Answer: B.
Explanation: Cushing triad (hypertension with wide pulse pressure, bradycardia, irregular
respirations) indicates increased ICP. Answer B is correct.
Q12. For testing cranial nerve II (optic), the examiner should perform:
A) Pupillary light reflex only
B) Visual acuity and visual fields by confrontation
C) Jaw strength testing
D) Shoulder shrug against resistance
Answer: B.
Explanation: CN II = visual acuity and fields (confrontation); pupillary reflex involves CN III.
Answer B is correct.
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