1|Page
EOR Women's Health Exam Questions With
Detailed Answer Key (2025|2026)
The fundus is at the umbilicus at approximately how many weeks? - correct-
answer-20
At how many weeks is the test for gestational diabetes performed - correct-
answer-24-28
At what point during a normal pregnancy should exams go from every 4 weeks to
every 3 weeks? - correct-answer-28 weeks
Which of the following is associated with meconium-stained amniotic fluid during
labor?
A. transition
B. prematurity
C. fast labor
D. fetal distress - correct-answer-(u) A. Transition is the last phase of the first stage
of labor. Complete cervical dilation marks the end of this stage of labor.
,2|Page
(u) B. Meconium passage occurs most commonly in post-term deliveries, not pre-
term deliveries. Passage of
meconium is related to mature development of the gastrointestinal tract and is
rarely seen before 36 weeks gestation.
(u) C. Prolonged labor, not fast labor, is associated with potential passage of
meconium into the amniotic fluid.
CORRECT: D. Passage of meconium is associated with fetal distress usually due to
asphyxia.
A 29 year-old female presents for routine prenatal visit at 26 weeks gestation. She
has no complaints and has
completed all the initial routine obstetrical diagnostic tests to date. Her physical
examination and all initial diagnostic
evaluations are unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate
diagnostic test to order at this time?
A. VDRL
B. amniocentesis
C. maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein
D. 1-hour post-Glucola blood glucose - correct-answer-(u) A. A serological test for
syphilis, usually the VDRL, is part of the routine obstetrical tests ordered at a
patient's
initial prenatal visit.
(u) B. Genetic testing should be offered routinely to patients over the age of 35.
Amniocentesis is usually performed
routinely at 16-18 weeks gestation if indicated.
,3|Page
(u) C. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein testing is routinely done between 15-18
weeks gestation to screen for neural tube defects.
CORRECT D. Glucose screening, usually with a 1-hour Glucola, is routinely
performed between 24-28 weeks gestation to
evaluate for glucose intolerance.
Which of the following is a major risk factor for an ectopic pregnancy?
A. alcohol intake
B. young maternal age
C. history of salpingitis
D. low dose oral contraceptive use - correct-answer-(u) A. Alcohol intake has not
been associated with an increased risk of ectopic pregnancy.
(u) B. Advanced maternal age, not younger maternal age, is an established risk
factor for ectopic pregnancy.
(c) C. A previous history of salpingitis is a major risk factor for ectopic pregnancy
since damage to the fallopian tube
prevents the fertilized ovum from reaching the uterus prior to implantation.
(u) D. Oral contraceptive use prevents ovulation and therefore decreases the over-
all risk of pregnancy, including
ectopic pregnancies. While high levels of estrogen and progesterone are thought
possibly to increase the risk of
ectopic pregnancy because these hormones slow the movement of the fertilized
egg through the fallopian tube, no
proven association has been established.
, 4|Page
A 24 year-old female presents with complaints of dysuria associated with fever,
malaise, myalgias and headache for
the past 3 days. Today she noticed some lesions on her genitalia. Physical
examination reveals the presence of
multiple clear vesicles and erythematous ulcers with tender bilateral inguinal
adenopathy. Which of the following is
the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
A. valacyclovir (Valtrex)
B. metronidazole (Flagyl)
C. ceftriaxone (Rocephin)
D. benzathine penicillin G (Bicillin) - correct-answer-(c) A. This patient most likely
has herpes genitalis which may be treated with oral antivirals, such as valacyclovir,
that
will reduce the duration of viral shedding and shorten the duration of symptoms.
(u) B. Metronidazole is the treatment of choice for Trichomonas vaginitis.
(u) C. Ceftriaxone is one of the options to treat uncomplicated gonorrhea or is
used as part of the treatment regimen
for pelvic inflammatory disease.
(u) D. Benzathine penicillin G is the treatment of choice for a patient with syphilis.
A 27 year-old G1P0 female presents complaining of painless spotting since this
morning. She is known to be 12
weeks pregnant. Pelvic examination reveals the presence of blood within the
vagina with a closed cervical os. The
EOR Women's Health Exam Questions With
Detailed Answer Key (2025|2026)
The fundus is at the umbilicus at approximately how many weeks? - correct-
answer-20
At how many weeks is the test for gestational diabetes performed - correct-
answer-24-28
At what point during a normal pregnancy should exams go from every 4 weeks to
every 3 weeks? - correct-answer-28 weeks
Which of the following is associated with meconium-stained amniotic fluid during
labor?
A. transition
B. prematurity
C. fast labor
D. fetal distress - correct-answer-(u) A. Transition is the last phase of the first stage
of labor. Complete cervical dilation marks the end of this stage of labor.
,2|Page
(u) B. Meconium passage occurs most commonly in post-term deliveries, not pre-
term deliveries. Passage of
meconium is related to mature development of the gastrointestinal tract and is
rarely seen before 36 weeks gestation.
(u) C. Prolonged labor, not fast labor, is associated with potential passage of
meconium into the amniotic fluid.
CORRECT: D. Passage of meconium is associated with fetal distress usually due to
asphyxia.
A 29 year-old female presents for routine prenatal visit at 26 weeks gestation. She
has no complaints and has
completed all the initial routine obstetrical diagnostic tests to date. Her physical
examination and all initial diagnostic
evaluations are unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate
diagnostic test to order at this time?
A. VDRL
B. amniocentesis
C. maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein
D. 1-hour post-Glucola blood glucose - correct-answer-(u) A. A serological test for
syphilis, usually the VDRL, is part of the routine obstetrical tests ordered at a
patient's
initial prenatal visit.
(u) B. Genetic testing should be offered routinely to patients over the age of 35.
Amniocentesis is usually performed
routinely at 16-18 weeks gestation if indicated.
,3|Page
(u) C. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein testing is routinely done between 15-18
weeks gestation to screen for neural tube defects.
CORRECT D. Glucose screening, usually with a 1-hour Glucola, is routinely
performed between 24-28 weeks gestation to
evaluate for glucose intolerance.
Which of the following is a major risk factor for an ectopic pregnancy?
A. alcohol intake
B. young maternal age
C. history of salpingitis
D. low dose oral contraceptive use - correct-answer-(u) A. Alcohol intake has not
been associated with an increased risk of ectopic pregnancy.
(u) B. Advanced maternal age, not younger maternal age, is an established risk
factor for ectopic pregnancy.
(c) C. A previous history of salpingitis is a major risk factor for ectopic pregnancy
since damage to the fallopian tube
prevents the fertilized ovum from reaching the uterus prior to implantation.
(u) D. Oral contraceptive use prevents ovulation and therefore decreases the over-
all risk of pregnancy, including
ectopic pregnancies. While high levels of estrogen and progesterone are thought
possibly to increase the risk of
ectopic pregnancy because these hormones slow the movement of the fertilized
egg through the fallopian tube, no
proven association has been established.
, 4|Page
A 24 year-old female presents with complaints of dysuria associated with fever,
malaise, myalgias and headache for
the past 3 days. Today she noticed some lesions on her genitalia. Physical
examination reveals the presence of
multiple clear vesicles and erythematous ulcers with tender bilateral inguinal
adenopathy. Which of the following is
the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
A. valacyclovir (Valtrex)
B. metronidazole (Flagyl)
C. ceftriaxone (Rocephin)
D. benzathine penicillin G (Bicillin) - correct-answer-(c) A. This patient most likely
has herpes genitalis which may be treated with oral antivirals, such as valacyclovir,
that
will reduce the duration of viral shedding and shorten the duration of symptoms.
(u) B. Metronidazole is the treatment of choice for Trichomonas vaginitis.
(u) C. Ceftriaxone is one of the options to treat uncomplicated gonorrhea or is
used as part of the treatment regimen
for pelvic inflammatory disease.
(u) D. Benzathine penicillin G is the treatment of choice for a patient with syphilis.
A 27 year-old G1P0 female presents complaining of painless spotting since this
morning. She is known to be 12
weeks pregnant. Pelvic examination reveals the presence of blood within the
vagina with a closed cervical os. The
