Comprehensive D115 quiz
1. A child with Down's syndrome has had frequent respiratory tract infections
since birth. What should the APRN tell the parent is the underlying cause of
this illness?: Gastroesophageal reflux disease causes aspiration of thin fluids.
Feedback: Gastroesophageal reflux is commonly seen in children with Down
syndrome and can be severe enough to result in aspiration of stomach contents,
causing respiratory symptoms such as persistent coughing, wheezing, and
pneumonia
2. The FNP understands that a female patient with a complete or partial
absence of the second sex chromosome may also display which of the
following physical signs?: Ovarian failure
Feedback: Turner's syndrome occurs in approximately 1 in 2500 live births. It is
diagnosed by complete or partial absence of the second sex chromosome (45, X).
Patients may also demonstrate congenital lymphedema of hands and feet, webbed
neck, high-arched palate, and short fourth metacarpal. Short stature, Ovarian
failure, cardiovascular and renal issues, ear malformations, and other health
problems, as well as amenorrhea due to premature ovarian failure
3. An example of a disease that is caused by a chromosomal deletion is cri
du chat syndrome. Children affected with this disorder commonly display
which of the following symptoms?: Symptoms associated with cri du chat include
low birth weight, severe intellectual disability, microcephaly, and heart defects.
4. What type of immunity is the body's 3rd line of defense and includes the
primary characteristics of specificity and memory.: Adaptive
Feedback: The third line of defense in the human body is adaptive (acquired)
immunity.
5. The local manifestations of inflammation result from vascular changes
and the circulation of associated components into the tissue. The 4 cardinal
signs of inflammation include all of the following:: Swelling, pain, heat, and
redness are the cardinal signs of inflammation.
6. Patients with trisomy of the 21st chromosome are also predisposed to
which of the following diseases, which is also affected by alterations in the
21st chromosome?: Alzheimer Disease
7. Which assessment findings are typically associated with a diagnosis of
systemic lupus erythematous?: Joint pain, malar rash, and photosensitivity
Feedback: The symptoms most often experiences with SLE are arthritis, arthralgias,
fatigue, Reynaud phenomenon, chronic low-grade fever, sun sensitivity, hair loss,
weakness, malar facial rash, and weight loss.
, 8. The FNP understands the the most common form of facial paralysis is
bells palsy. This disorder primarily affects which cranial nerve?: Bell palsy
may be caused by reactivation of herpesviruses in cranial nerve VII
9. A patient presents with symptoms of fever, tachycardia, chills, throbbing
headache, severe photophobia, and nuchal rigidity. Based on the presumed
diagnosis, the FNP understands that the following symptoms may also occur
in response to irritation and inflammation of the cranial nerves:: deafness,
tinnitus, and vertigo
Feedback: These symptoms can occur due to damage to cranial nerve VIII.
10. The clinical manifestations of myasthenia gravis include diplopia, ptosis,
ocular palsies, facial droop, and difficulty swallowing and chewing. The
symptoms are a direct result of a defect in nerve impulse transmission at the
neuromuscular junction. These symptoms usually have an insidious onset
and can commonly occur during which significant life event?: Pregnancy
11. When prescribing an antibiotic to treat acute otitis media, the FNP is
aware that there are 4 common bacteria that cause AOM. Which of the
following is not a common cause?: Streptococcus pyogenes - The most common
pathogens are Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis, Streptococcus
pneumonia, and Staphylococcus aureus.
12. During an intake interview with a 26-year-old patient diagnosed with
generalized anxiety disorder, the FNP might observe what type of behavior?:
Inability to concentrate and irritability when questioned
13. When assessing a patient who has a diagnosis of major depressive
disorder, which would be considered a cognitive symptom of depression?:
Cognitive deficits associated with depression include deficits in problem solving,
decision making, and impaired judgment, memory loss, and lack of concentration.
14. The FNP would expect which symptoms in a patient with a diagnosis of
schizophrenia?: Paranoia, delusions, hallucinations, and diminished self-care
Feedback: The characteristics of schizophrenia are paranoia, delusions, tangential
thought, suspiciousness, disorganized behavior, and hallucinations.
15. You are seeing a 17 year old female, as part of the visit you consider her
risk factors for type 2 DM would likely include all of the following except::
Family History of type 1 DM - A child or teen is more at risk for type 2 diabetes if he
or she has any of these risk factors: Family history of type 2 diabetes Being
overweight Not exercising regularly Being African American, Hispanic American, or
American Indian A low level HDL cholesterol A high triglyceride level Being female
Having slightly high blood sugar levels (prediabetes) Personal history of polycystic
ovary syndrome
1. A child with Down's syndrome has had frequent respiratory tract infections
since birth. What should the APRN tell the parent is the underlying cause of
this illness?: Gastroesophageal reflux disease causes aspiration of thin fluids.
Feedback: Gastroesophageal reflux is commonly seen in children with Down
syndrome and can be severe enough to result in aspiration of stomach contents,
causing respiratory symptoms such as persistent coughing, wheezing, and
pneumonia
2. The FNP understands that a female patient with a complete or partial
absence of the second sex chromosome may also display which of the
following physical signs?: Ovarian failure
Feedback: Turner's syndrome occurs in approximately 1 in 2500 live births. It is
diagnosed by complete or partial absence of the second sex chromosome (45, X).
Patients may also demonstrate congenital lymphedema of hands and feet, webbed
neck, high-arched palate, and short fourth metacarpal. Short stature, Ovarian
failure, cardiovascular and renal issues, ear malformations, and other health
problems, as well as amenorrhea due to premature ovarian failure
3. An example of a disease that is caused by a chromosomal deletion is cri
du chat syndrome. Children affected with this disorder commonly display
which of the following symptoms?: Symptoms associated with cri du chat include
low birth weight, severe intellectual disability, microcephaly, and heart defects.
4. What type of immunity is the body's 3rd line of defense and includes the
primary characteristics of specificity and memory.: Adaptive
Feedback: The third line of defense in the human body is adaptive (acquired)
immunity.
5. The local manifestations of inflammation result from vascular changes
and the circulation of associated components into the tissue. The 4 cardinal
signs of inflammation include all of the following:: Swelling, pain, heat, and
redness are the cardinal signs of inflammation.
6. Patients with trisomy of the 21st chromosome are also predisposed to
which of the following diseases, which is also affected by alterations in the
21st chromosome?: Alzheimer Disease
7. Which assessment findings are typically associated with a diagnosis of
systemic lupus erythematous?: Joint pain, malar rash, and photosensitivity
Feedback: The symptoms most often experiences with SLE are arthritis, arthralgias,
fatigue, Reynaud phenomenon, chronic low-grade fever, sun sensitivity, hair loss,
weakness, malar facial rash, and weight loss.
, 8. The FNP understands the the most common form of facial paralysis is
bells palsy. This disorder primarily affects which cranial nerve?: Bell palsy
may be caused by reactivation of herpesviruses in cranial nerve VII
9. A patient presents with symptoms of fever, tachycardia, chills, throbbing
headache, severe photophobia, and nuchal rigidity. Based on the presumed
diagnosis, the FNP understands that the following symptoms may also occur
in response to irritation and inflammation of the cranial nerves:: deafness,
tinnitus, and vertigo
Feedback: These symptoms can occur due to damage to cranial nerve VIII.
10. The clinical manifestations of myasthenia gravis include diplopia, ptosis,
ocular palsies, facial droop, and difficulty swallowing and chewing. The
symptoms are a direct result of a defect in nerve impulse transmission at the
neuromuscular junction. These symptoms usually have an insidious onset
and can commonly occur during which significant life event?: Pregnancy
11. When prescribing an antibiotic to treat acute otitis media, the FNP is
aware that there are 4 common bacteria that cause AOM. Which of the
following is not a common cause?: Streptococcus pyogenes - The most common
pathogens are Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis, Streptococcus
pneumonia, and Staphylococcus aureus.
12. During an intake interview with a 26-year-old patient diagnosed with
generalized anxiety disorder, the FNP might observe what type of behavior?:
Inability to concentrate and irritability when questioned
13. When assessing a patient who has a diagnosis of major depressive
disorder, which would be considered a cognitive symptom of depression?:
Cognitive deficits associated with depression include deficits in problem solving,
decision making, and impaired judgment, memory loss, and lack of concentration.
14. The FNP would expect which symptoms in a patient with a diagnosis of
schizophrenia?: Paranoia, delusions, hallucinations, and diminished self-care
Feedback: The characteristics of schizophrenia are paranoia, delusions, tangential
thought, suspiciousness, disorganized behavior, and hallucinations.
15. You are seeing a 17 year old female, as part of the visit you consider her
risk factors for type 2 DM would likely include all of the following except::
Family History of type 1 DM - A child or teen is more at risk for type 2 diabetes if he
or she has any of these risk factors: Family history of type 2 diabetes Being
overweight Not exercising regularly Being African American, Hispanic American, or
American Indian A low level HDL cholesterol A high triglyceride level Being female
Having slightly high blood sugar levels (prediabetes) Personal history of polycystic
ovary syndrome
