HESI PHARMACOLOGY PRACTICE
QUESTIONS FOR FINAL
A client is receiving clonidine (Catapres) 0.1 mg/24hr via transdermal patch. Which assessment
finding indicates that the desired effect of the medication has been achieved?
A. Client denies recent episodes of angina.
B. Change in peripheral edema from +3 to +1.
C. Client denies recent nausea or vomiting.
D. Blood pressure has changed from 180/120 to 140/70. Correct - ANSCatapres acts as a
centrally-acting analgesic and antihypertensive agent. (D) indicates a reduction in hypertension.
Catapres does not affect (A, B, or C), so these findings do not indicate desired outcomes of
Catapres
After abdominal surgery, a male client is prescribed low molecular weight heparin (LMWH).
During administration of the medication, the client asks the nurse why he is receiving this
medication. Which is the best response for the nurse to provide?
A. This medication is a blood thinner given to prevent blood clot formation. Correct
B. This medication enhances antibiotics to prevent infection.
C. This medication dissolves any clots that develop in the legs. Incorrect
D. This abdominal injection - ANSUnfractionated heparin or low molecular weight heparin
(LMWH) is an anticoagulant that inhibits thrombin-mediated conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
and is given prophylactically to prevent postoperative venous thrombosis (A) or to treat
pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis following knee and abdominal surgeries. Heparin
does not dissolve clots but prevents clot extension or further clot formation (C). The
anticoagulant heparin does not prevent infection (B) or influence operative wound healing (D).
A client with coronary artery disease who is taking digoxin (Lanoxin) receives a new prescription
for atorvastatin (Lipitor). Two weeks after initiation of the Lipitor prescription, the nurse assesses
the client. Which finding requires the most immediate intervention?
A. Heartburn.
B. Headache.
C. Constipation.
D. Vomiting. Correct - ANSVomiting, anorexia and abdominal pain are early indications of
digitalis toxicity. Since Lipitor increases the risk for digitalis toxicity, this finding requires the most
immediate intervention by the nurse (D). (A, B and C) are expected side effects of Lipitor
A client with heart failure is prescribed spironolactone (Aldactone). Which information is most
important for the nurse to provide to the client about diet modifications?
Do not add salt to foods during preparation.
Refrain for eating foods high in potassium. Correct
, Restrict fluid intake to 1000 ml per day.
Increase intake of milk and milk products. - ANSSpironolactone (Aldactone), an aldosterone
antagonist, is a potassium-sparing diuretic, so a diet high in potassium should be avoided (B),
including potassium salt substitutes, which can lead to hyperkalemia. Although (A) is a common
diet modification in heart failure, the risk of hyperkalemia is more important with Aldactone.
Restriction of fluids (C) or increasing milk and milk products (D) are not indicated with this
prescription.
A client with a dysrhythmia is to receive procainamide (Pronestyl) in 4 divided doses over the
next 24 hours. What dosing schedule is best for the nurse to implement?
q6h. Correct
QID.
AC and bedtime.
PC and bedtime. - ANSPronestyl is a class 1A antidysrhythmic. It should be taken
around-the-clock (A) so that a stable blood level of the drug can be maintained, thereby
decreasing the possibility of hypotension (an adverse effect) occurring because of too much of
the drug circulating systemically at any particular time of day. (B, C, and D) do not provide an
around-the-clock dosing schedule. Pronestyl may be given with food if GI distress is a problem,
but an around-the-clock schedule should still be maintained.
A client who was prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor) one month ago calls the triage nurse at the
clinic complaining of muscle pain and weakness in his legs. Which statement reflects the correct
drug-specific teaching the nurse should provide to this client?
A. Increase consumption of potassium-rich foods since low potassium levels can cause muscle
spasms.
B. Have serum electrolytes checked at the next scheduled appointment to assess
hyponatremia, a cause of cramping.
C. Make an appointment - ANSMyopathy, suggested by the leg pain and weakness, is a
serious, and potentially life-threatening, complication of Lipitor, and should be evaluated
immediately by the healthcare provider (C). Although electrolyte imbalances such as (A or B)
can cause muscle spasms in some cases, this is not the likely cause of leg pain in the client
receiving Lipitor, and evaluation by the healthcare provider should not be delayed for any
reason. A low-cholesterol diet is recommended for those taking Lipitor since the drug is used to
lower total cholesterol (D), but diet is not related to the leg pain symptom.
A category X drug is prescribed for a young adult female client. Which instruction is most
important for the nurse to teach this client?
, A. Use a reliable form of birth control. Correct
B. Avoid exposure to ultra violet light.
C. Refuse this medication if planning pregnancy.
D. Abstain from intercourse while on this drug. - ANSDrugs classified in the category X place a
client who is in the first trimester of pregnancy at risk for teratogenesis, so women in the
childbearing years should be counseled to use a reliable form of birth control (A) during drug
therapy. (B) is not a specific precaution with Category X drugs. The client should be encouraged
to discuss plans for pregnancy with the healthcare provider, so a safer alternative prescription
(C) can be provided if pregnancy occurs. Although the risk of birth defects during pregnancy
explains the restriction of these drugs during pregnancy, (D) is not indicated.
A client receiving Doxorubicin (Adriamycin) intravenously (IV) complains of pain at the insertion
site, and the nurse notes edema at the site. Which intervention is most important for the nurse
to implement?
A. Assess for erythema.
B. Administer the antidote.
C. Apply warm compresses.
D. Discontinue the IV fluids. Correct - ANSDoxorubicin is an antineoplastic agent that causes
inflammation, blistering, and necrosis of tissue upon extravasation. First, all IV fluids should be
discontinued at the site (D) to prevent further tissue damage by the vesicant. Erythema is one
sign of infiltration and should be noted, but edema and pain at the infusion site require stopping
the IV fluids (A). Although an antidote may be available (B), additional fluids contribute to the
trauma of the subcutaneous tissues. Depending on the type of vesicant, warm or cold
compresses (C) may be prescribed after the infusion is discontinued.
The nurse is preparing the 0900 dose of losartan (Cozaar), an angiotensin II receptor blocker
(ARB), for a client with hypertension and heart failure. The nurse reviews the client's laboratory
results and notes that the client's serum potassium level is 5.9 mEq/L. What action should the
nurse take first?
A. Withhold the scheduled dose. Correct
QUESTIONS FOR FINAL
A client is receiving clonidine (Catapres) 0.1 mg/24hr via transdermal patch. Which assessment
finding indicates that the desired effect of the medication has been achieved?
A. Client denies recent episodes of angina.
B. Change in peripheral edema from +3 to +1.
C. Client denies recent nausea or vomiting.
D. Blood pressure has changed from 180/120 to 140/70. Correct - ANSCatapres acts as a
centrally-acting analgesic and antihypertensive agent. (D) indicates a reduction in hypertension.
Catapres does not affect (A, B, or C), so these findings do not indicate desired outcomes of
Catapres
After abdominal surgery, a male client is prescribed low molecular weight heparin (LMWH).
During administration of the medication, the client asks the nurse why he is receiving this
medication. Which is the best response for the nurse to provide?
A. This medication is a blood thinner given to prevent blood clot formation. Correct
B. This medication enhances antibiotics to prevent infection.
C. This medication dissolves any clots that develop in the legs. Incorrect
D. This abdominal injection - ANSUnfractionated heparin or low molecular weight heparin
(LMWH) is an anticoagulant that inhibits thrombin-mediated conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
and is given prophylactically to prevent postoperative venous thrombosis (A) or to treat
pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis following knee and abdominal surgeries. Heparin
does not dissolve clots but prevents clot extension or further clot formation (C). The
anticoagulant heparin does not prevent infection (B) or influence operative wound healing (D).
A client with coronary artery disease who is taking digoxin (Lanoxin) receives a new prescription
for atorvastatin (Lipitor). Two weeks after initiation of the Lipitor prescription, the nurse assesses
the client. Which finding requires the most immediate intervention?
A. Heartburn.
B. Headache.
C. Constipation.
D. Vomiting. Correct - ANSVomiting, anorexia and abdominal pain are early indications of
digitalis toxicity. Since Lipitor increases the risk for digitalis toxicity, this finding requires the most
immediate intervention by the nurse (D). (A, B and C) are expected side effects of Lipitor
A client with heart failure is prescribed spironolactone (Aldactone). Which information is most
important for the nurse to provide to the client about diet modifications?
Do not add salt to foods during preparation.
Refrain for eating foods high in potassium. Correct
, Restrict fluid intake to 1000 ml per day.
Increase intake of milk and milk products. - ANSSpironolactone (Aldactone), an aldosterone
antagonist, is a potassium-sparing diuretic, so a diet high in potassium should be avoided (B),
including potassium salt substitutes, which can lead to hyperkalemia. Although (A) is a common
diet modification in heart failure, the risk of hyperkalemia is more important with Aldactone.
Restriction of fluids (C) or increasing milk and milk products (D) are not indicated with this
prescription.
A client with a dysrhythmia is to receive procainamide (Pronestyl) in 4 divided doses over the
next 24 hours. What dosing schedule is best for the nurse to implement?
q6h. Correct
QID.
AC and bedtime.
PC and bedtime. - ANSPronestyl is a class 1A antidysrhythmic. It should be taken
around-the-clock (A) so that a stable blood level of the drug can be maintained, thereby
decreasing the possibility of hypotension (an adverse effect) occurring because of too much of
the drug circulating systemically at any particular time of day. (B, C, and D) do not provide an
around-the-clock dosing schedule. Pronestyl may be given with food if GI distress is a problem,
but an around-the-clock schedule should still be maintained.
A client who was prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor) one month ago calls the triage nurse at the
clinic complaining of muscle pain and weakness in his legs. Which statement reflects the correct
drug-specific teaching the nurse should provide to this client?
A. Increase consumption of potassium-rich foods since low potassium levels can cause muscle
spasms.
B. Have serum electrolytes checked at the next scheduled appointment to assess
hyponatremia, a cause of cramping.
C. Make an appointment - ANSMyopathy, suggested by the leg pain and weakness, is a
serious, and potentially life-threatening, complication of Lipitor, and should be evaluated
immediately by the healthcare provider (C). Although electrolyte imbalances such as (A or B)
can cause muscle spasms in some cases, this is not the likely cause of leg pain in the client
receiving Lipitor, and evaluation by the healthcare provider should not be delayed for any
reason. A low-cholesterol diet is recommended for those taking Lipitor since the drug is used to
lower total cholesterol (D), but diet is not related to the leg pain symptom.
A category X drug is prescribed for a young adult female client. Which instruction is most
important for the nurse to teach this client?
, A. Use a reliable form of birth control. Correct
B. Avoid exposure to ultra violet light.
C. Refuse this medication if planning pregnancy.
D. Abstain from intercourse while on this drug. - ANSDrugs classified in the category X place a
client who is in the first trimester of pregnancy at risk for teratogenesis, so women in the
childbearing years should be counseled to use a reliable form of birth control (A) during drug
therapy. (B) is not a specific precaution with Category X drugs. The client should be encouraged
to discuss plans for pregnancy with the healthcare provider, so a safer alternative prescription
(C) can be provided if pregnancy occurs. Although the risk of birth defects during pregnancy
explains the restriction of these drugs during pregnancy, (D) is not indicated.
A client receiving Doxorubicin (Adriamycin) intravenously (IV) complains of pain at the insertion
site, and the nurse notes edema at the site. Which intervention is most important for the nurse
to implement?
A. Assess for erythema.
B. Administer the antidote.
C. Apply warm compresses.
D. Discontinue the IV fluids. Correct - ANSDoxorubicin is an antineoplastic agent that causes
inflammation, blistering, and necrosis of tissue upon extravasation. First, all IV fluids should be
discontinued at the site (D) to prevent further tissue damage by the vesicant. Erythema is one
sign of infiltration and should be noted, but edema and pain at the infusion site require stopping
the IV fluids (A). Although an antidote may be available (B), additional fluids contribute to the
trauma of the subcutaneous tissues. Depending on the type of vesicant, warm or cold
compresses (C) may be prescribed after the infusion is discontinued.
The nurse is preparing the 0900 dose of losartan (Cozaar), an angiotensin II receptor blocker
(ARB), for a client with hypertension and heart failure. The nurse reviews the client's laboratory
results and notes that the client's serum potassium level is 5.9 mEq/L. What action should the
nurse take first?
A. Withhold the scheduled dose. Correct
