EXAMS TEST BANK EXAM 2026-2027 WITH
ACTUAL CORRECT QUESTIONS AND
VERIFIED DETAILED ANSWERS
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1. A client is prescribed lisinopril. Which finding indicates a common adverse effect?
A. Persistent dry cough
B. Bradycardia
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Constipation
✔ Answer: A
Rationale: ACE inhibitors like lisinopril can cause a persistent dry cough due to increased
bradykinin. Monitor blood pressure and renal function.
2. A client is taking furosemide. Which lab requires monitoring?
A. Potassium
B. Blood glucose
C. Magnesium only
D. Hemoglobin
✔ Answer: A
Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, causes potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia.
Monitor electrolytes closely.
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,3. A client taking digoxin has a heart rate of 52 bpm. What should the nurse do?
A. Administer the dose
B. Hold the medication and notify the provider
C. Encourage fluids
D. Give a diuretic
✔ Answer: B
Rationale: Digoxin slows the heart rate. Bradycardia <60 bpm in adults requires holding the
dose and notifying the provider due to risk of toxicity.
4. Which is a common adverse effect of beta blockers like metoprolol?
A. Hypotension and bradycardia
B. Hyperglycemia
C. Dry mouth
D. Insomnia
✔ Answer: A
Rationale: Beta blockers slow heart rate and reduce blood pressure. Monitor vitals, especially
for patients with heart failure or diabetes.
5. A client is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide. Which statement shows understanding?
A. “I will monitor my potassium levels regularly.”
B. “I should avoid all fluids.”
C. “This medication increases my potassium.”
D. “I should take it at night.”
✔ Answer: A
Rationale: Thiazide diuretics can cause hypokalemia. They are usually taken in the morning to
avoid nocturia.
6. Which antihypertensive is contraindicated in pregnancy?
A. Lisinopril
B. Methyldopa
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,C. Nifedipine
D. Hydralazine
✔ Answer: A
Rationale: ACE inhibitors like lisinopril can cause fetal injury and are contraindicated in
pregnancy. Methyldopa, nifedipine, and hydralazine are safer options.
7. A client taking spironolactone should be monitored for:
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypertension
✔ Answer: A
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Monitor potassium levels and signs
of hyperkalemia.
8. What is the therapeutic effect of nitroglycerin?
A. Vasodilation to relieve angina
B. Decrease heart rate
C. Increase blood glucose
D. Lower potassium
✔ Answer: A
Rationale: Nitroglycerin dilates coronary vessels, reducing myocardial oxygen demand and
relieving angina.
9. A client reports headache after taking nitroglycerin. The nurse should:
A. Recognize it as a common side effect
B. Discontinue immediately
C. Give an analgesic without notifying the provider
D. Ignore it
✔ Answer: A
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, Rationale: Headache is a common side effect of vasodilation from nitroglycerin. Monitor and
educate the client.
10. A client on warfarin reports dark stools. The nurse should:
A. Assess for signs of bleeding and notify the provider
B. Encourage more iron-rich foods
C. Administer vitamin K immediately
D. Ignore it if the client feels fine
✔ Answer: A
Rationale: Dark stools may indicate GI bleeding, a serious complication of warfarin. Notify the
provider promptly.
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11. A client is prescribed albuterol via inhaler. Which statement indicates correct use?
A. “I will use it daily as a long-term controller.”
B. “I will use it right before exercise if I have asthma triggers.”
C. “I should skip my inhaler if I feel fine.”
D. “I can use it instead of my steroid inhaler every day.”
✔ Answer: B
Rationale: Albuterol is a short-acting beta-agonist (SABA) for acute symptoms or pre-exercise
use. It is not for daily control, which is managed by corticosteroids.
12. Which side effect is most common with inhaled corticosteroids (e.g., fluticasone)?
A. Oral candidiasis
B. Tachycardia
C. Hypertension
D. Hypoglycemia
✔ Answer: A
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