NUR 155 Exam 2 practice exam with 100 questions and answers, plus rationales
/instant pdf
1. A nurse is assessing a patient who reports shortness of breath. Which assessment should
the nurse perform first?
A. Ask about dietary preferences
B. Assess airway and breathing
C. Review family history
D. Obtain a detailed social history
Answer: B. Assess airway and breathing
Rationale: Airway and breathing are immediate priorities when respiratory compromise is
suspected.
2. Which finding is most concerning in a patient experiencing respiratory distress?
A. Mild nasal congestion
B. Oxygen saturation of 98%
C. Cyanosis and altered mental status
D. Occasional cough
Answer: C. Cyanosis and altered mental status
Rationale: Cyanosis and altered mental status may indicate significant hypoxemia and require
immediate intervention.
3. Which position generally promotes lung expansion in a patient experiencing dyspnea?
A. Supine
B. High-Fowler's
C. Trendelenburg
D. Prone with the head flat
Answer: B. High-Fowler's
Rationale: Upright positioning promotes maximal chest expansion and can make breathing
easier.
4. Which oxygen-delivery device can provide a precise concentration of oxygen?
A. Venturi mask
B. Nasal cannula
C. Simple face mask
D. Nonrebreather mask
Answer: A. Venturi mask
Rationale: A Venturi mask delivers a controlled, relatively precise oxygen concentration.
5. A patient receiving oxygen through a nasal cannula should be monitored for:
A. Oxygenation and respiratory status
B. Hair growth
,C. Hearing changes only
D. Blood glucose only
Answer: A. Oxygenation and respiratory status
Rationale: Oxygen therapy requires ongoing assessment of respiratory status and oxygenation.
6. Which assessment finding is consistent with hypoxia?
A. Restlessness
B. Increased appetite
C. Warm, dry skin only
D. Increased urine output
Answer: A. Restlessness
Rationale: Restlessness, anxiety, confusion, and changes in mental status can occur with
hypoxia.
7. Which respiratory assessment finding requires prompt attention?
A. Clear bilateral breath sounds
B. Severe use of accessory muscles
C. Respiratory rate of 16/min
D. Symmetrical chest expansion
Answer: B. Severe use of accessory muscles
Rationale: Significant accessory-muscle use indicates increased work of breathing.
8. Which finding is commonly associated with pneumonia?
A. Fever and productive cough
B. Bradycardia without symptoms
C. Increased appetite
D. Clear lungs in every case
Answer: A. Fever and productive cough
Rationale: Pneumonia commonly causes fever, cough, sputum production, dyspnea, and
abnormal breath sounds.
9. What is an important intervention for a patient with pneumonia?
A. Encourage appropriate hydration if not contraindicated
B. Restrict all fluids
C. Keep the patient completely immobile
D. Avoid coughing
Answer: A. Encourage appropriate hydration if not contraindicated
Rationale: Adequate hydration can help thin respiratory secretions and facilitate clearance.
10. Which intervention helps prevent postoperative respiratory complications?
A. Incentive spirometry
, B. Prolonged bed rest
C. Avoiding coughing
D. Restricting movement indefinitely
Answer: A. Incentive spirometry
Rationale: Incentive spirometry promotes deep breathing and helps reduce atelectasis.
11. Which finding is characteristic of atelectasis?
A. Collapse or incomplete expansion of alveoli
B. Excessive bone growth
C. Increased blood glucose
D. Kidney failure
Answer: A. Collapse or incomplete expansion of alveoli
Rationale: Atelectasis occurs when alveoli partially or completely collapse.
12. A nurse teaches a postoperative patient to cough and deep breathe. The primary
purpose is to:
A. Improve ventilation and secretion clearance
B. Increase blood glucose
C. Reduce appetite
D. Prevent constipation only
Answer: A. Improve ventilation and secretion clearance
Rationale: Coughing and deep breathing promote lung expansion and help clear secretions.
13. Which assessment is most important before administering an opioid analgesic?
A. Respiratory rate and level of consciousness
B. Hair color
C. Height
D. Visual acuity
Answer: A. Respiratory rate and level of consciousness
Rationale: Opioids can cause respiratory depression and sedation.
14. Which adverse effect is commonly associated with opioid analgesics?
A. Respiratory depression
B. Severe hypertension in every patient
C. Increased bowel motility
D. Excessive urination
Answer: A. Respiratory depression
Rationale: Respiratory depression is a serious opioid adverse effect; constipation and sedation
are also common.
/instant pdf
1. A nurse is assessing a patient who reports shortness of breath. Which assessment should
the nurse perform first?
A. Ask about dietary preferences
B. Assess airway and breathing
C. Review family history
D. Obtain a detailed social history
Answer: B. Assess airway and breathing
Rationale: Airway and breathing are immediate priorities when respiratory compromise is
suspected.
2. Which finding is most concerning in a patient experiencing respiratory distress?
A. Mild nasal congestion
B. Oxygen saturation of 98%
C. Cyanosis and altered mental status
D. Occasional cough
Answer: C. Cyanosis and altered mental status
Rationale: Cyanosis and altered mental status may indicate significant hypoxemia and require
immediate intervention.
3. Which position generally promotes lung expansion in a patient experiencing dyspnea?
A. Supine
B. High-Fowler's
C. Trendelenburg
D. Prone with the head flat
Answer: B. High-Fowler's
Rationale: Upright positioning promotes maximal chest expansion and can make breathing
easier.
4. Which oxygen-delivery device can provide a precise concentration of oxygen?
A. Venturi mask
B. Nasal cannula
C. Simple face mask
D. Nonrebreather mask
Answer: A. Venturi mask
Rationale: A Venturi mask delivers a controlled, relatively precise oxygen concentration.
5. A patient receiving oxygen through a nasal cannula should be monitored for:
A. Oxygenation and respiratory status
B. Hair growth
,C. Hearing changes only
D. Blood glucose only
Answer: A. Oxygenation and respiratory status
Rationale: Oxygen therapy requires ongoing assessment of respiratory status and oxygenation.
6. Which assessment finding is consistent with hypoxia?
A. Restlessness
B. Increased appetite
C. Warm, dry skin only
D. Increased urine output
Answer: A. Restlessness
Rationale: Restlessness, anxiety, confusion, and changes in mental status can occur with
hypoxia.
7. Which respiratory assessment finding requires prompt attention?
A. Clear bilateral breath sounds
B. Severe use of accessory muscles
C. Respiratory rate of 16/min
D. Symmetrical chest expansion
Answer: B. Severe use of accessory muscles
Rationale: Significant accessory-muscle use indicates increased work of breathing.
8. Which finding is commonly associated with pneumonia?
A. Fever and productive cough
B. Bradycardia without symptoms
C. Increased appetite
D. Clear lungs in every case
Answer: A. Fever and productive cough
Rationale: Pneumonia commonly causes fever, cough, sputum production, dyspnea, and
abnormal breath sounds.
9. What is an important intervention for a patient with pneumonia?
A. Encourage appropriate hydration if not contraindicated
B. Restrict all fluids
C. Keep the patient completely immobile
D. Avoid coughing
Answer: A. Encourage appropriate hydration if not contraindicated
Rationale: Adequate hydration can help thin respiratory secretions and facilitate clearance.
10. Which intervention helps prevent postoperative respiratory complications?
A. Incentive spirometry
, B. Prolonged bed rest
C. Avoiding coughing
D. Restricting movement indefinitely
Answer: A. Incentive spirometry
Rationale: Incentive spirometry promotes deep breathing and helps reduce atelectasis.
11. Which finding is characteristic of atelectasis?
A. Collapse or incomplete expansion of alveoli
B. Excessive bone growth
C. Increased blood glucose
D. Kidney failure
Answer: A. Collapse or incomplete expansion of alveoli
Rationale: Atelectasis occurs when alveoli partially or completely collapse.
12. A nurse teaches a postoperative patient to cough and deep breathe. The primary
purpose is to:
A. Improve ventilation and secretion clearance
B. Increase blood glucose
C. Reduce appetite
D. Prevent constipation only
Answer: A. Improve ventilation and secretion clearance
Rationale: Coughing and deep breathing promote lung expansion and help clear secretions.
13. Which assessment is most important before administering an opioid analgesic?
A. Respiratory rate and level of consciousness
B. Hair color
C. Height
D. Visual acuity
Answer: A. Respiratory rate and level of consciousness
Rationale: Opioids can cause respiratory depression and sedation.
14. Which adverse effect is commonly associated with opioid analgesics?
A. Respiratory depression
B. Severe hypertension in every patient
C. Increased bowel motility
D. Excessive urination
Answer: A. Respiratory depression
Rationale: Respiratory depression is a serious opioid adverse effect; constipation and sedation
are also common.
