NSG 3130 EXAM 4 — FUNDAMENTAL
CONCEPTS & SKILLS FOR NURSING PRACTICE
II 200 Practice Questions with Answers and
Rationales
Course: NSG 3130 – Fundamental Concepts and Skills for Nursing Practice II
Institution: Galen College of Nursing
Exam: Exam 4
Format: Multiple-choice, NCLEX-style questions
Key Topics: Cardiopulmonary Nursing, Oxygenation & Airway Management, Heart Failure,
COPD, Chest Tubes, Tracheostomy Care, Anticoagulation Therapy, Renal & Urinary Disorders,
Fluid & Electrolyte Imbalances, Endocrine Disorders, Gastrointestinal Disorders, Patient Safety,
Infection Control, Pain Management, Therapeutic Communication
SECTION 1: OXYGENATION CONCEPTS & AIRWAY MANAGEMENT (Questions 1–40)
1. When assessing a patient's oxygenation status, which vital sign should the nurse monitor and
what is considered abnormal?
- A) Blood pressure; <90/60 mmHg is abnormal
- B) Respiratory rate; a rate outside 12-20 breaths per minute may indicate a problem
- C) Temperature; >100.4°F is abnormal
- D) Heart rate; >100 bpm is abnormal
Answer: B
Rationale: Respiratory rate is the primary vital sign for assessing oxygenation status. A rate of
12-20 breaths per minute is normal for adults; deviations may indicate oxygenation problems.
The gold standard lab test for assessing gas exchange is the arterial blood gas (ABG).
2. What is the primary purpose of an incentive spirometer?
- A) To deliver high-flow oxygen to the patient
- B) To prevent atelectasis by encouraging deep breathing
,- C) To monitor oxygen saturation levels
- D) To administer aerosolized medications
Answer: B
Rationale: Incentive spirometry helps prevent atelectasis (collapse of alveoli) by encouraging
patients to take deep breaths. Patients should be instructed to inhale slowly and deeply, hold the
breath for 3-5 seconds, and exhale normally. The device should be used 10 times per hour while
awake.
3. Which oxygen delivery device delivers the most precise oxygen concentration?
- A) Nasal cannula
- B) Simple face mask
- C) Venturi mask
- D) Non-rebreather mask
Answer: C
Rationale: The Venturi mask provides the most precise oxygen concentration because it uses a
color-coded adapter that mixes oxygen with a specific amount of room air. This is particularly
important for patients with COPD who are at risk for CO₂ retention.
4. What is the correct flow rate and oxygen percentage for a non-rebreather mask?
- A) 2-6 L/min; 24-44%
- B) 6-10 L/min; 35-60%
- C) 10-15 L/min; 60-100%
- D) 8-12 L/min; 40-60%
Answer: C
Rationale: A non-rebreather mask delivers the highest concentration of oxygen (60-100%) at
flow rates of 10-15 L/min. The reservoir bag must be kept inflated to at least 1/3 to 1/2 full to
ensure the patient is receiving oxygen rather than rebreathing CO₂.
5. What are the correct flow rate and oxygen percentage for a simple face mask?
- A) 2-6 L/min; 24-44%
- B) 5-10 L/min; 40-60%
- C) 6-10 L/min; 35-60%
- D) 10-15 L/min; 60-100%
Answer: B
,Rationale: A simple face mask delivers oxygen at 5-10 L/min with an FiO₂ of 40-60%. The
minimum flow rate of 5 L/min is required to flush CO₂ from the mask.
6. What are the correct flow rate and oxygen percentage for a Venturi mask?
- A) 2-6 L/min; 24-44%
- B) 4-12 L/min; 24-60%
- C) 6-10 L/min; 35-60%
- D) 10-15 L/min; 60-100%
Answer: B
Rationale: The Venturi mask delivers oxygen at 4-12 L/min with an FiO₂ of 24-60%. The
color-coded adapters provide the most precise oxygen concentration.
7. The nurse is caring for a patient with COPD who is receiving oxygen via Venturi mask. Which
laboratory value is most important to monitor?
- A) Hemoglobin
- B) Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
- C) White blood cell count
- D) Serum electrolytes
Answer: B
Rationale: For patients with COPD, monitoring ABGs is essential because they are at risk for
CO₂ retention and respiratory acidosis. The Venturi mask is preferred because it delivers a
precise oxygen concentration to avoid suppressing the hypoxic drive.
8. An oropharyngeal airway is indicated for which type of patient?
- A) A conscious patient with a gag reflex
- B) An unconscious patient without a gag reflex
- C) A patient with a nasal fracture
- D) A patient with a tracheostomy
Answer: B
Rationale: An oropharyngeal airway is used in unconscious patients who do not have a gag
reflex. It prevents the tongue from obstructing the airway. It should never be used in conscious
patients or those with an intact gag reflex due to the risk of vomiting and aspiration.
, 9. A nasopharyngeal airway is most appropriate for which situation?
- A) An unconscious patient without a gag reflex
- B) A conscious patient requiring suctioning
- C) A patient with facial trauma
- D) A patient with a tracheostomy
Answer: B
Rationale: A nasopharyngeal airway can be used in conscious patients with an intact gag reflex
because it is better tolerated. It is also used for suctioning. It should not be used in patients with
facial trauma or basilar skull fractures.
10. How long can an endotracheal (ET) tube remain in place before a tracheostomy is typically
considered?
- A) 24-48 hours
- B) 3-5 days
- C) 10-14 days
- D) 30 days
Answer: C
Rationale: An endotracheal tube typically remains in place for 10-14 days. If the patient still
requires ventilation support after this time, a tracheostomy is usually considered to reduce the
risk of laryngeal damage and facilitate weaning.
11. The cuff on an endotracheal tube serves which primary purpose?
- A) To secure the tube in place
- B) To seal the airway and prevent aspiration
- C) To deliver oxygen directly to the lungs
- D) To allow suctioning of secretions
Answer: B
Rationale: The cuff at the end of an endotracheal tube is inflated to seal the airway and prevent
aspiration of secretions or gastric contents into the lungs. It also helps ensure that ventilated air
reaches the lungs.
12. Which statement about suctioning a newly created tracheostomy is correct?
- A) Suctioning can be delegated to a UAP
- B) Suctioning should be performed vigorously to clear secretions
- C) Suctioning should be stopped if the O₂ saturation decreases
CONCEPTS & SKILLS FOR NURSING PRACTICE
II 200 Practice Questions with Answers and
Rationales
Course: NSG 3130 – Fundamental Concepts and Skills for Nursing Practice II
Institution: Galen College of Nursing
Exam: Exam 4
Format: Multiple-choice, NCLEX-style questions
Key Topics: Cardiopulmonary Nursing, Oxygenation & Airway Management, Heart Failure,
COPD, Chest Tubes, Tracheostomy Care, Anticoagulation Therapy, Renal & Urinary Disorders,
Fluid & Electrolyte Imbalances, Endocrine Disorders, Gastrointestinal Disorders, Patient Safety,
Infection Control, Pain Management, Therapeutic Communication
SECTION 1: OXYGENATION CONCEPTS & AIRWAY MANAGEMENT (Questions 1–40)
1. When assessing a patient's oxygenation status, which vital sign should the nurse monitor and
what is considered abnormal?
- A) Blood pressure; <90/60 mmHg is abnormal
- B) Respiratory rate; a rate outside 12-20 breaths per minute may indicate a problem
- C) Temperature; >100.4°F is abnormal
- D) Heart rate; >100 bpm is abnormal
Answer: B
Rationale: Respiratory rate is the primary vital sign for assessing oxygenation status. A rate of
12-20 breaths per minute is normal for adults; deviations may indicate oxygenation problems.
The gold standard lab test for assessing gas exchange is the arterial blood gas (ABG).
2. What is the primary purpose of an incentive spirometer?
- A) To deliver high-flow oxygen to the patient
- B) To prevent atelectasis by encouraging deep breathing
,- C) To monitor oxygen saturation levels
- D) To administer aerosolized medications
Answer: B
Rationale: Incentive spirometry helps prevent atelectasis (collapse of alveoli) by encouraging
patients to take deep breaths. Patients should be instructed to inhale slowly and deeply, hold the
breath for 3-5 seconds, and exhale normally. The device should be used 10 times per hour while
awake.
3. Which oxygen delivery device delivers the most precise oxygen concentration?
- A) Nasal cannula
- B) Simple face mask
- C) Venturi mask
- D) Non-rebreather mask
Answer: C
Rationale: The Venturi mask provides the most precise oxygen concentration because it uses a
color-coded adapter that mixes oxygen with a specific amount of room air. This is particularly
important for patients with COPD who are at risk for CO₂ retention.
4. What is the correct flow rate and oxygen percentage for a non-rebreather mask?
- A) 2-6 L/min; 24-44%
- B) 6-10 L/min; 35-60%
- C) 10-15 L/min; 60-100%
- D) 8-12 L/min; 40-60%
Answer: C
Rationale: A non-rebreather mask delivers the highest concentration of oxygen (60-100%) at
flow rates of 10-15 L/min. The reservoir bag must be kept inflated to at least 1/3 to 1/2 full to
ensure the patient is receiving oxygen rather than rebreathing CO₂.
5. What are the correct flow rate and oxygen percentage for a simple face mask?
- A) 2-6 L/min; 24-44%
- B) 5-10 L/min; 40-60%
- C) 6-10 L/min; 35-60%
- D) 10-15 L/min; 60-100%
Answer: B
,Rationale: A simple face mask delivers oxygen at 5-10 L/min with an FiO₂ of 40-60%. The
minimum flow rate of 5 L/min is required to flush CO₂ from the mask.
6. What are the correct flow rate and oxygen percentage for a Venturi mask?
- A) 2-6 L/min; 24-44%
- B) 4-12 L/min; 24-60%
- C) 6-10 L/min; 35-60%
- D) 10-15 L/min; 60-100%
Answer: B
Rationale: The Venturi mask delivers oxygen at 4-12 L/min with an FiO₂ of 24-60%. The
color-coded adapters provide the most precise oxygen concentration.
7. The nurse is caring for a patient with COPD who is receiving oxygen via Venturi mask. Which
laboratory value is most important to monitor?
- A) Hemoglobin
- B) Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
- C) White blood cell count
- D) Serum electrolytes
Answer: B
Rationale: For patients with COPD, monitoring ABGs is essential because they are at risk for
CO₂ retention and respiratory acidosis. The Venturi mask is preferred because it delivers a
precise oxygen concentration to avoid suppressing the hypoxic drive.
8. An oropharyngeal airway is indicated for which type of patient?
- A) A conscious patient with a gag reflex
- B) An unconscious patient without a gag reflex
- C) A patient with a nasal fracture
- D) A patient with a tracheostomy
Answer: B
Rationale: An oropharyngeal airway is used in unconscious patients who do not have a gag
reflex. It prevents the tongue from obstructing the airway. It should never be used in conscious
patients or those with an intact gag reflex due to the risk of vomiting and aspiration.
, 9. A nasopharyngeal airway is most appropriate for which situation?
- A) An unconscious patient without a gag reflex
- B) A conscious patient requiring suctioning
- C) A patient with facial trauma
- D) A patient with a tracheostomy
Answer: B
Rationale: A nasopharyngeal airway can be used in conscious patients with an intact gag reflex
because it is better tolerated. It is also used for suctioning. It should not be used in patients with
facial trauma or basilar skull fractures.
10. How long can an endotracheal (ET) tube remain in place before a tracheostomy is typically
considered?
- A) 24-48 hours
- B) 3-5 days
- C) 10-14 days
- D) 30 days
Answer: C
Rationale: An endotracheal tube typically remains in place for 10-14 days. If the patient still
requires ventilation support after this time, a tracheostomy is usually considered to reduce the
risk of laryngeal damage and facilitate weaning.
11. The cuff on an endotracheal tube serves which primary purpose?
- A) To secure the tube in place
- B) To seal the airway and prevent aspiration
- C) To deliver oxygen directly to the lungs
- D) To allow suctioning of secretions
Answer: B
Rationale: The cuff at the end of an endotracheal tube is inflated to seal the airway and prevent
aspiration of secretions or gastric contents into the lungs. It also helps ensure that ventilated air
reaches the lungs.
12. Which statement about suctioning a newly created tracheostomy is correct?
- A) Suctioning can be delegated to a UAP
- B) Suctioning should be performed vigorously to clear secretions
- C) Suctioning should be stopped if the O₂ saturation decreases
