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What is the generic name for Tenormin? A. Metoprolol B. Nadalol C. Propranolol D. Atenolol - A. Metoprolol What is the generic name for Calan? A. Nifedipine B. Diltiazem C. Verapamil D. Amlodipine - C. Verapamil

Which drug is an NSAID - Nabumetone Which information is not required by federal law on a prescription label - NDC Which medication is ordered using DEA form 222 - Morphine sulfate Which of the following drugs is a controlled substance? - Phenobarbital Which of the following drugs is considered a diuretic - Furosemide Which of the following drugs is considered an analgesic - Tramadol Which of the following drugs is not an antihistamine - Paroxetine Which of the followi...

Which abbreviation means right eye? - OD If a patient requires an iou for oxycodone/apap when must the remaining quantity be left? - Within 72 hours from date before 30 days of originak prescription Furosemide is used to treat which of the following conditions ? - Hypertension Which reason describes a reason a pharmacy tech should ship a medication in an amber container rather than a clear one? - Protect medication from light Which is the percentage of sodium chloride in a norma...

A patient's medication administration record indicates the he is receiving ampicillin-sulbactam (Unasyn) piggyback qid. The pharmacy technician should recognize that this medication is delivered via which of the following routes of administration? A. intravenous injection B. continuous infusion C. intrathecal injection D. subcutaneously - A. intravenous injection Which of the following information is indicated by the NDC number? A. the expiration date B. the manufacturer C. the l...

Which of the following terms indicates the set percentage of the cost of a prescription must be paid by the patient? - coinsurance Prevastatin (Pravachol) is used to treat? - Hyperlipidemia Technician is preparing to process an in-date return to the warehouse, which medication is required to be sent in a refrigerated tote? - Latanoprost (Xalatan) What does PAR represent in inventory control systems? - Periodic automatic replenishment Translate the prescription instructions: i ta...

What is a nephron? - The most basic unit of the kidney. Diuretic drugs work by modulating electrolyte exchange at certain locations in the nephron; for exapmle, loop diruetics prevent sodium from being re-absorbed from the Loop of Henle (A segment of the nephron) What is Phosphodiesterase-5 (PDE-5)? - A key enzyme involved in the breakdown of nitric oxide. What is Polyuria? - Excessive urine production What is Priapism? - A painful, prolonged erection What is a sedative-hypnotic...

What is medication reconciliation? - the process of comparing the patients order to other medications in the patients file What does the abbreviation APAP stand for? - acetaminophen (Tylenol) What controlled schedule does buprenorphine belong to? - Schedule III What is a generic drug? - A drug named for the active ingredient but without the copyright of the name-brand drug What is the standard concentration of insulin? - 100 units/mL What does the abreviation NSAID stand for? ...

According to federal law, ____ is the maximum amount of pseudoephedrine (Sudafed) that an individual is allowed to purchase in a 30-day period. - 9g _______________ best describes the process of the metabolism of a drug. - the transformation of a drug to an active or inactive state A pharmacy technician should identify that ______ can be dispensed without a childproof container. - Nitroglycerine (Nitrostat) _______ best describes an IV route of administration in which a dose is gi...

Which of the following drugs is not an antihistamine - Paroxetine Which of the following medications does not require ordering with DEA form 222 - Ultram A heparin lock is used with a/an - TPN solution While preparing a prescription, a bottle of finasteride is spilled on the floor and some tablets are broken. Who should stay away from the spill area. - Females who are or may become pregnant. Who is authorized to sign a DEA form 222 order form. - Individuals with power of attorney. ...

TBS EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS COMBINED SETS |2025/2026 EDITION

TBS EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS COMBINED SETS |2025/2026 EDITION

what is swft-e? - the acronym for machine gun tasking statements What does the S in SWFT-E stand for? - Support relationships (GS, DS, attached) What does the W in SWFT-E stand for? - 5 W's What does the F in SWFT-E stand for? - Fire control measures (commence/shift/cease at TL/TRP) What does the T in SWFT-E stand for? - Target Precidence (WHAT to shoot and in what order) What does the E in SWFT-E stand for? - Engagement criteria (WHEN do I shoot) What is the acronym MO...

Which of the following are characteristics of a warfighter? Select one: a. Adheres to and enforces standards. b. Devoted to our core values of honor, courage, and commitment. c. A competent combat leader, grounded in basic infantry skills, and characterized by sound judgement. d. Imbued with self-discipline and thrives in complex environments. - Correct Answer ️️A competent combat leader, grounded in basic infantry skills, and characterized by sound judgement. Definition of bearing ...

The ______ allows commanders to confirm or deny the assumptions developed during the planning process. - Correct Answer ️ ️Leader's recon Maneuver units should only advance from the assault position upon _____ direct and/or indirect suppression. - Correct Answer ️ ️Effective What is an easily recognizable point on the ground used to initiate, distribute, and control fires? - Correct Answer ️️Target reference point. A seeks to avoid the enemy's frontage by striking from...

Without the aid of references, define the term seizure without error. - Correct Answer ️️Seizure. Taking physical control of evidence Without the aid of references, describe courts-martial convening authorities without omission - Correct Answer ️️• The commander who creates, appoints, and brings into existence a court-martial. • In the Marine Corps, the lowest level commander authorized to convene a court-martial (summary or special court-martial) is a battalion or squadron ...

What does the Legend of a map tell you? Select one: a. Indicates the angular relationships fo true north, grid north and magnetic north b. Describes the largest natural feature or settlement covered by a particular map c. The ratio of a map distance to the corresponding distance on the earths surface d.Illustrates and identifies the topographic symbols used on the map - Correct Answer ️️Illustrates and identifies the topographic symbols used on the map

7 Basic Employment Principles for Reinforcing Obstacles (FOCDPIG) F - Correct Answer ️️Covered by fire The principal purpose of integrating obstacle location with fire is to enhance the effectiveness of these fires. 7 Basic Employment Principles for Reinforcing Obstacles (FOCDPIG) O - Correct Answer ️️Observed It is imperative that all reinforcing obstacles are observed in order to maximize the use of available indirect fires on the enemy. 7 Basic Employment Principles for Reinfo...

What is a ground sign that is an IED indicator? - Correct Answer ️️Discardables, fresh dirt, exposed wires, etc. What is a common location for IED emplacement that should be considered during mission planning? - Correct Answer ️ ️Boundary Turnaround Points _____ is an IED designed to look like a benign object the victim believes is safe to handle. Devices include discarded coalition or local/indigenous military equipment, radios, or digging equipment. Detonations have occurred i...

What are tactical control measures associated with an ambush patrol? - Correct Answer ️️Objective Rally Point, Release Point, Kill Zone. What is the purpose of an ambush patrol? - Correct Answer ️ ️Destroy enemy troops and equipment Which type of kill zone is best suited to destroy a fire team sized element? - Correct Answer ️️A point ambush with a single kill What are the three classifications of ambush patrols? - Correct Answer ️️Hasty, Deliberate, Ambush of Opportunit...

A key component of the defense, _____ includes all aspects of protecting personnel, weapons, and supplies. - Correct Answer ️ ️Survivability What is the lowest level unit that is assigned a sector of fire? - Correct Answer ️️Fire team What is the definition of the Least Engaged Unit at the platoon level? - Correct Answer ️️The unit under minimal enemy influence when the engagement begins. What is the cyclic rate of fire for the M240B MG? - Correct Answer ️️650 rpm What ...