Eustace

A patient's health plan is referred to as the payer of last resort. The patient is covered by which of the following health plans? Medicaid CHAMPA Medicare TRICARE - ANS - Medicaid A provider charged $500 to a claim that had an allowable amount of $400. In which of the following columns should the CBCS apply the non allowed charge? -Reference column (For notations) -Description column -Payment column -Adjustment column of the credits - ANS - Adjustment column of the credits Which of...

Which of the following describes the reason for a claim rejection because of Medicare ncci edits? - ANS - Improper code combinations A claim is submitted with a transposed insurance member ID number and returned to the provider. Which of the following describes the status that should be assigned to the claim by the carrier? - ANS - invalid Medigap coverage is offered to Medicare beneficiaries by which of the following? - ANS - Private third-party payers Which of the following provisions e...

The symbol "O" in the Current Procedural Terminology reference is used to indicate what? - ANS - Reinstated or recycled code In the anesthesia section of the CPT manual, what are considered qualifying circumstances? - ANS - Add-on codes As of April 1, 2014 what is the maximum number of diagnoses that can be reported on the CMS- 1500 claim form before a further claim is required? - ANS - 12 What is considered proper supportive documentation for reporting CPT and ICD codes for surgical pr...

how does the registration process begin in an outpatient setting? - ANS - when a new patient calls the office for an appointment to see a provider. what does a front staff member do once they obtain information from a new patient? - ANS - they create an account that includes the patient's identity, medical condition, and insurance/payment info. what does a front staff member do once they obtain information from an established patient? - ANS - the staff member searches for the patient reco...

Which Of the following is the best method to ensure restoration of EHR documents? a.) Back up all database information b.) Keep a a paper copy of all health information c.) Use two different EHR systems d.) Give the patient a digital copy of medical records - ANS - a.) Back up all database information A facility should back up database information on a routine basis in case of system crashes or losses Which of the following is an example of meaningful use? a.) A registered nurse enters ...

Which of the following is the best method to ensure restoration of EHR documents? - ANS - Back up all database information Which of the following is an example of meaningful use? - ANS - A provider electronically exchanges a patient's lab data with a medical specialist An EHR specialist is accessing her facilities provider database. Which of the following is she looking for? - ANS - Specialty referrals Storing backup data or media in an off-site location is an example of which of the foll...

An insurance adjustor requests a patient's progress notes following a motor vehicle crash. Which of the following should guide the EHR specialist in releasing this information? A. meaningful use B. continuity of care C. assignment of benefits D. minimum necessity - ANS - D. minimum necessity Which of the following is a feature of clinical decision support? A. allows patients access to educational material B. allows patient care to be tailored to published guidelines C. allows for elect...

Which of the following condition is the most common cause of increase anion gap? A.Metabolic alkalosis B. Metabolic acidosis Respiratory acidosis Respiratory alkalosis - ANS - B. Metabolic acidosis High anion gap metabolic acidosis is caused generally by the body producing too much acid or not producing enough bicarbonate. This is often due to an increase in lactic acid or ketoacids, or it may be a sign of kidney failure. More rarely, high anion gap metabolic acidosis may be caused by in...

An indirect infection is an infection that is: A) transmitted through direct contact B) transmitted through no direct human contact C) transmitted through direct kissing D) transmitted through direct sexual contact - ANS - B) transmitted through no direct human contact Sodium Flouride keeps ______ molecules intact for 3 days. A) Cellulose B) Cellulite C) Glucose D) Glucerine - ANS - C) Glucose An average adult weighing between 150 to 160 pounds has how much blood in their body? A) 1 ...

Name the locations of active marrow in adults: - ANS - sternum, skull, ribs, pelvis, vertebrae Where does hematopoiesis take place during the first 2 months of gestation? - ANS - yolk sac Where does the majority of hematopoiesis take place during the 2nd through 7th month of gestation? - ANS - spleen When does the bone marrow take over hematopoiesis? - ANS - after birth What are the stages in order of the erythrocyte lineage? - ANS - (1)rubriblast, (2)prorubricyte, (3)rubricyte, (4)metarub...

Which of the following is part of the standard protocol when doing a bleeding time? - ANS - A butterfly-type bandage is used When collecting blood using a syringe, samples should be placed into evacuated tubes in the following order: - ANS - Blue, lavender, red The outer layer of the heart is the: - ANS - Epicardium A platelet count of 650,000 per cubic millimeter is termed: - ANS - Thrombocytosis A phlebotomist with 6 collection orders for patients in the hospital receives a handwritten ...

What type of serological testing does the blood bank technologist perform when determining the blood group of a patient? - ANS - phenotyping If anti-K reacts 3+ with a donor cell with a genotype KK and 2+ with a Kk cell, the antibody is demonstrating: - ANS - Dosage Carla expresses the blood group antigens Fya, Fyb, and Xga. James shows expressions of none of these antigens. What factor(s) may account for the absence of these antigens in James? - ANS - Gender and Race. The frequency of D...

When using an electronic cell counter, which of the following results can occur in the presence of a cold agglutination? a) increased MCV and decreased RBC b) increased MCV and normal RBC c) decreased MCV and increased MCHC d) decreased MCV and RBC - ANS - a) increased MCV and decreased RBC Cerebrospinal fluid for glucose assay should be: a) refrigerated b) analyzed immediately c) heated to 56 degree C d) stored at room temp after centrifugation - ANS - b) analyzed immediately The major c...

What feature is most often found with patients with a splenectomy on a Wright's stained blood smear? - ANS - Howell-Jolly bodies Patients with antibody to the following antigen are immune to Hepatitis B: - ANS - Surface antigen (HbSAg) Which two of the following tests are helpful for documenting previous Streptococcal throat and skin infections: - ANS - ASO titer and Anti-DNase B In mass spectrometry, the "appearance potential" is defined as the: - ANS - Minimum energy required for the...

B; The correct answer for this question is 1300 mg/dL. The laboratorian performed a 1:4 dilution by adding 0.25 mL (or 250 microliters) of patient sample to 750 microliters of diluent. This creates a total volume of 1000 microliters. So, the patient sample is 250 microliters of the 1000 microliter mixed sample, or a ratio of 1:4. Therefore, the result given by the chemistry analyzer must be multiplied by a dilution factor of 4. 325 mg/dL x 4 = 1300 mg/dL. - ANS - After experiencing extreme...

1) Following overnight fasting, hypoglycemia in adults is defined as a glucose of: a. <70 mg/dL (<3.9 mmol/L) b. <60 mg/dL (<3.3mmol/L) c. <55 mg/dL (<3.0mmol/L) d. <45mg/dL (<2.5mmol/L) - ANS - d (Diagnosis of hypoglycemia in adults.) 3) The preparation of a patient for standard glucose tolerance testing should include: a. a high carbohydrate diet for 3 days b. a low carbohydrate diet for 3 days c. fasting for 48 hrs. prior to testing d. bed rest for 3 days - AN...

pbt has just completed centriuging specimens for the chemistry department and notes that one of the tubes is cloudy and pinkish red. This specimen is - ANS - lipemic and hemolyzed this test will be delivered to immunology for testing - ANS - RPR physician calls the lab requesting the procedure for a patient who wishes to donate his own blood before his surgery. this type of donation is knowns as: - ANS - Autologous donation analysis of the chemical components of blood - ANS - the basic purp...

Name 3 things a bartender must do in "Setting Up" the bar. - ANS - 1. Prepare garnishes 2. Check and Fill Mixers 3. Fill Ice Sink What does L, S, T, and M stand for on the soda gun? - ANS - L- Lemon/Lime Soda S- Soda: Club/Seltzer T- Tonic Water M- Sour Mix Name all of the mixers according to their color in your Jockey Bin. - ANS - 1. Red = Cranberry 2. Orange = Orange Juice 3. Green = Pineapple 4. Yellow = Grapefruit 5. Brown/Grey = Milk/Cream 6. White = Sour Mix What age do you ...

How many years does a house of representative member serve? - ANS - 2 years How old must a person be to be elected HR? Senate? - ANS - House of Representative - At least 25 Senators - at least 30 Where does a bill (proposal for new law) originate? - ANS - A bill originates in the House of Representatives How long is the term for the US senator? - ANS - 6 years Who has the power to declare war? - ANS - The Congress How many members are in the senate? HR? Congress? - ANS - There are 100 se...

When does a state have jurisdiction to prosecute a crime? - ANS - state may prosecute crime if significant portion of prohibited CONDUCT or RESULT occurred in that state Merger - ANS - -one crime is subsumed into another → can be CHARGED, but cannot be CONVICTED of both -Lesser-included offenses DO merge into greater-included offenses (e.g. crime w/ elements AB merges into crime w/ elements ABC) -Conspiracy does NOT merge into the target offense -Solicitation and Attempt DO merge into t...