Brainarium

what is epilepsy? repeated periods of seizures, cause of seizures and disease of the brain criteria of epilepsy? at least 2 unprovoked seizures occurring more than 24 hours apart, one unprovoked seizure that has a 60% risk of recurrence after 2 unprovoked seizures, over than next 10 years, diagnosis of epilepsy syndrome What is epilepsy caused by? genetic mutations and environmental effects: genetic, structural, metabolic, immune, infections, and unknown causes what causes epilepsy - br...

Acute pericarditis Acute inflammation of the pericardium Acute Pericarditis Clinical Manifestations fever, myalgias, and malaise, followed by the sudden onset of severe chest pain Fever is not a must, but it could be a hint to what is causing the issue Acute Pericarditis Treatment rest, salicylates, and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs; combined nonsteroidal and colchicine Pericardial Rub when inflammation around the pericardium rubs on tissue, sounds like sandpaper on wood How ...

what are ECGs used for? to establish the presence of myocardial ischemia & myocardial infarction, or conduction defects & dysrhythmias what are the basic steps for ECG interpretation? 1. rate of ECG 2. is there a P wave for every QRS wave? Is there a QRS wave for every P wave? 3. do the P waves come at consistent intervals? 4. is the QRS complex wide or narrow? what determines the degree of ischemia that can develop? degree of occlusion caused by plaque & oxygen demand of myocardium wh...

features of cerebral hemodynamic injury Alterations in cerebral blood flow, intracranial pressure, and oxygen delivery Cerebral Blood Flow (CBF) normally maintained at a rate that matches local metabolic needs of the brain cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) (70-90 mm Hg) the pressure required to perfuse the cells of the brain (MAP - ICP) cerebral blood volume (CBV) Amount of blood in intracranial vault at a given time cerebral blood oxygenation Measured by oxygen saturation in internal j...

Morphine Classification • Opioids MOA • acute and severe chronic pain • Acute MI pain • Cancer pain Desired effects • Alters perception and emotional response to pain • Produces profound analgesic and euphoric effects Adverse effect • Dysphoria • Hallucinations • Nausea • Constipation • Orthostatic hypotension • Dizziness • Pruritus • Respiratory depression • Cardiac arrestHydromorphone Classification: opioids Indications • Relief of moderate...

Prednisone (Glucocorticoids) aple Ibuprofen (NSAIDS) a Hydrochlorothiazide (shorter acting thiazide diurtics) a Furosemide (Loop diuretic) ( Spironolactone (Mineralocorticoid receptor antagonists) a Lisinopril (ACE inhibitor) a Propranolol (non-selective beta-adrenergic blocker) a Warfarin (Anticoagulant) a Vitamin K (Warfarin antidote) a

right side HF symptoms systemic related: enlarged liver, spleen, pedal edema pericardium disorders acute pericarditis, constrictive/restrictive pericarditis, pericardial effusion definition and causes of acute pericarditis acute inflammation of pericardium (accumulation of fluid), cause idiopathic or viral infection clinical manifestations of acute pericarditis several days of fever, myalgias, and malaise, with sudden sharp severe chest pain that worsens with respirations and supine pos...

What is epilepsy syndrome associated with? abnormal findings on EEG and MRI, that occur together in recognizable pattern • Age, time of day, triggers, type of seizures taken into account What is a seizure Sudden, transient disruption in brain electrical function What is a seizure caused by abnormal excessive discharges of cortical neurons What is epilepsy • At least two unprovoked seizures occurring more than24 hours apart • One unprovoked seizure that has a 60% risk of recurrenc...

Nagelhout Bundle with complete solutions.

pharmacy - CORRECT ANSWER-the preparation and dispensing of drugs pharmacogenetics - CORRECT ANSWER-genetic influences by and on drugs pharmacodynamics - CORRECT ANSWER-physiological and biochemical mechanism of action of drugs (e.g. receptor theory) pharmacogenomics - CORRECT ANSWER-identifies discrete genetic differences among individuals that play a critical role in drug response pharmacoepidemiology - CORRECT ANSWER-is the study of the use and effects of drugs on large groups of peop...

What is important to know about alzheimer's drugs and anesthetic? - CORRECT ANSWER-Succinylcholine effects may last longer. Inability to appropriately breakdown excess acetylcholine. Single twitch monitoring test - CORRECT ANSWER--A single electrical stimulus ranging from 0.1-1.0 Hz. *Requires baseline before drug administration; generally used as qualitative rather than quantitative assessment.* Train-of-four test? Useful during? Not used with? - CORRECT ANSWER-A series of four twitc...

How do ACE-I work? - CORRECT ANSWER-preventing the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II how do ACE-I cause cough - CORRECT ANSWER-bradykinin is broken down by ACE; ACE-I increases bradykinin--> cough how do ARBs work? - CORRECT ANSWER-ARBs work by blocking the angiotensin receptor blocker Esmolol vs Labetalol - CORRECT ANSWER-Labetalol: -is a B and a blocker--> vasodilation -not cardioselective -preferred for HTN Esmolol -just a B blocker--> vasoconstriction -shorte...

second gas effect - CORRECT ANSWER-high conc of fast (nitrous) and a slower gas. The slower gas achieves anesthetic levels more quickly than if given alone diffusion hypoxia - CORRECT ANSWER-seen when high level of nitrous given. at end of case, diffuse into lungs and dilute 02 concentrations cardiac output effect - CORRECT ANSWER-increase in CO DECREASES speed of onset ventilation-perfusion abnormalities - CORRECT ANSWER-REDUCE the speed of onset Peds - CORRECT ANSWER-achieve anesthesia ...

Which opioid is metabolized by non esterase dependent enzymes? - CORRECT ANSWER-Remifentanil This happens via hydrolysis of ester bonds in the blood plasma What is the elimination half life of remifentanil? - CORRECT ANSWER-5-10 minutes T or F. Remifentanil has anti shivering property? - CORRECT ANSWER-False. Only Meperidine has anti shivering property. Which stimuli requires the highest dose narcotics to achieve no response: skin incision, skin closure, intubation? - CORRECT ANSWER-Intub...

Miscellaneous drugs associated with Local Anesthetics - CORRECT ANSWER-- EMLA Cream - Hyaluronidase - Oraverse Three required chemical components of the local anesthetic molecule - CORRECT ANSWER-1. Lipophilic portion (Benzene ring) 2. Hydrophilic portion (Quarternary amine) 3. Separated by an Intermediate Chain (either an Ester or Amide chain) Amide Intermediate bond characteristics - CORRECT ANSWER-NH (positively charged) and Carbonyl oxygen (negatively charged) = attracted to each ot...

What is a reported serious S/E related to dexamethasone? - CORRECT ANSWER-- avascular necrosis of femoral head -at risk pts: DM, peptic ulcer dx, immunocompromised pts (ONE DOSE SHOULD BE HARMLESS) Does one dose of dexamethasone have an effect on wound healing or increase blood sugar? - CORRECT ANSWER-NO What is the biggest cardiac effect of opioids? - CORRECT ANSWER-bradycardia due to medullary vagal stimulation Do opioids have an effect on BP? - CORRECT ANSWER--no effect on BP ... EXCE...

How does potency of volatile anesthetics correlate with lipid solubility? - CORRECT ANSWER-A decrease in potency means a decrease in oil/gas partition coefficient values Does increasing the number of halogenated atoms increase the risk of cardiac dysrhythmias? - CORRECT ANSWER-yes Lipid solubility is directly/indirectly proportional to potency - CORRECT ANSWERdirectly What is the molecular formula of nitrous oxide? - CORRECT ANSWER-N2O What is the molecular formula of Isoflurane? - CORREC...

Mechanism of class I antiarrhythmic drugs? - CORRECT ANSWER-Na channel blockers; depression of phase 0 depolarization Mechanism of class II antiarrhythmic drugs? - CORRECT ANSWER-Beta blockers Mechanism of class III antiarrhythmic drugs? - CORRECT ANSWER-Potassium blockers; prolongs repolarization Mechanism of class IV antiarrhythmic drugs? - CORRECT ANSWER-Calcium channel blockers Adenosine works on what receptors? - CORRECT ANSWER-Purinergic P1 receptors Drug treatment for a-fib/a-flut...

What are the 2 types of ligands? - CORRECT ANSWER-Agonists and Antagonists What does an agonist drug do? - CORRECT ANSWER-Binds to a receptor and causes a response What does an antagonist do? - CORRECT ANSWER-binds to a receptor and BLOCKS the function that receptor serves What is competitive binding? - CORRECT ANSWER-reversible (most drugs); as drug wears off, there will be a higher concentration of something else in the body that will bind to those receptors. These drugs possess a weak ...

The nurse is caring for a client with acute cholecystitis who has vomited multiple times in the past hour. Which of the following actions would be a priority for the nurse to take? a. Maintain the client on NPO status b. Request a prescription for an anticholinergic c. Administer a promethazine suppository to the client d. Insert an NG tube and connect it to a low-intermittent suction A 3 multiple choice options The nurse is caring for a client with left lobar pneumonia. The nurse shou...