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Who conducts AVCERT? - Naval Air Systems Command (NAVAIR) What is the purpose of AVCERT? - To ensure required shipboard aviation facilities and equipment are installed and functioning properly. What CE's are conducted at C-1? - CE-13 Launch and Recovery Helicopter(Day) CE-15 Launch and Recovery Helicopter (Night) CE-21 Hot Refuel Aircraft on Deck (Day or Night) CE-22 HIFR (Helicopter in Flight Refueling) CE-23 VERTREP (Vertical Replenishment) What Instruction is used for MOB-A assessmen...

1. How much does a cubic foot of water weigh? - a. 8.34 lbs b. 7.48 lbs c. 62.38 lbs d. 15.82 lbs 2. What is the best way to store a 150# chlorine gas cylinder? - a. On its side b. Above ground level c. Upright, secured from falling 3. Which is not a proper alternative for treatment of industrial wastewater? - a. Pretreatment by the IWTS followed by discharge to the POTW b. Direct discharge to receiving waters c. Discharge to POTW for treatment d. Complete treatment by IWTS and d...

The M151 Protector is comprised of what 3 major components? - Weapon Station FCU Control Grip What are the 3 main external cables - W1- CG to FCU power/signal/feedback W2- FCU to WS data/video signal/feedback W3- WS to FCU video signal/power What is the traverse speed and elevation speed of the m151 protector? - Elevation 60 deg per second max .0084 deg min Traverse 80 deg per second max .0084 deg min What is the elevation range of the m151 protector? - -20 deg to 60 deg What enha...

According to TC 3-22.9 what are the 3 individual weapon employment skills? - -Accuracy -Precision -Consistancy (TC 3-22.9 Fig. 1-1) What are the four rules of firearms safety that apply to all weapons systems according to TC 3- 22.9? - -Treat Every Weapon as if it is loaded -Never Point the Weapon at Anything You Do Not Intend to Destroy. -Keep Finger Straight and Off the Trigger until Ready to Fire -Ensure Positive Identification of the Target and its Surroundings (TC 3-22.9 Para 1-6...

List IWTS Gates - Gate 4 - Individual/Crew served weapons Gate 3 - Squad/Crew Gate 2 - Platoon/Section Gate 1 - Battalion/Company What does IWTS stand for? - Integrated Weapons Training Strategy What is IWTS? - Detailed description of the army's overarching training strategy for all individual, crew-served, and crew platform weapons to achieve direct fire proficiency. What are the training phases of IWTS? - Prerequisite and Live fire How many tables are in IWTS? - Six tables

The IWTS is a way for the commander to _____, _____, and _______ his/her unit. - Train, Evaluate, Assess How many tables are there for each weapon, system, small unit, and Echelon? - Six What is crew table I Called? - GST Live You must complete each echelon in order to progress to the next echelon. True or False - True IWTS has three elements. What are they? - Echelons, Tables, Training Cycle Table VI on any weapon, platform, small unit, or echelon, is called what? - Live Fire Proficienc...

What are the two subcategories of OAS? - CAS and DAS What is the definition of air direction? - The authority to regulate the employment of air resources including both aircraft and surface-to-air weapons to maintain a balance between their availability and the priorities assigned for their use Which operations center is responsible for the MWSS's specific services and functions? - AGSOC The limited number of Marine transport aircraft available will restrict operations to those conducted...

Which of the following are responsibilities of the squadron CO within the WTTP? - Authorize MAWTS-1 Officer aircrew to act as pilot in command and mission commanders. Select candidtes for unit instructor certifications. Assign officer/enlisted WTIs to each unit WTI T/O billet. Which of the following is an assault support enhancement for MAGT operations? - Provides operational and tactical mobility and logistics support. Which EW unit exercises technical control and coordinates technical SI...

(S1) If you started your first alcohol server job after August 8, 2016, you must be re-trained in the RAMP Server/Seller class before your current training expires. - True (S1) Signage required for RAMP Certification MUST include which of the following information: - A and B only (S1) A benefit of RAMP Certification for the licensee is a possible reduction in the fines and penalties issued by an Administrative Law Judge to the licensee for serving a minor or a visibly intoxicated patron. -...

1. Once on range or training site, the OIC should immediately - B - Establish FM Comms W/ Fire Desk and request occupation time 2. After firing or training is complete the OIC should - A - Call Fire Desk and request dry time 3. The RSO's job is to _______________ - A - Observe Safety 4. Who determines level of medical support for units on ranges and training areas? - A - Unit commander 5. Who is overall responsible for the safe conduct of their range or training area? - B - OIC 6. A cop...

CERT training promotes national resilience by: - Creating a culture of preparedness for all people By learning how to safely respond to man-made, technological, and national disasters, CERT volunteers contribute to: - National resilience What is a main feature of the CERT program - Trained volunteers use a consistent, nationwide approach to support emergency responders with disaster preparedness and response. Generally, why do people join a CERT? - To better prepare for hazards and protect...

Which of the following is a type of pump commonly used in water treatment plants? - Centrifugal What is a multistage pump? - Has more than one impeller If the pump impeller is running backwards, what action must be taken to correct the rotation? - Switch any two electrical leads When should the packing of a pump be adjusted? - When the pump is running When a pump fails to deliver at its rated capacity, what is the most likely cause? - Air leak What is a common cause for vibration in a mot...

Resting membrane potential is created by differences between the inside and outside of the cell in ion concentrations of 1. K+ 2. K+ and Ca++ 3. K+, Na+ and Cl- 4. Na+, Ca++ and Cl- - K+, Na+, and ClExcitation of the postsynaptic neuron is caused by the neurotransmitter 1. gamma amino butyric acid 2. glycine 3. para amino butyric acid 4. glutamate - Glutamate Wave III of the BAER is generated by the 1. superior olivary complex 2. inferior colliculus 3. lateral lemniscus 4. medial g...

Which of the following is least likely to cause electrical interference in the operating room? - The pneumatic drill If the monitoring instrument develops an inability to average, steps to take would include all the following except:? - Consult with the anesthesiologist anesthesia changes Lying between the adjacent surfaces of the vertebral bodies and bonding them together, are the: ? - Intervertebral discs The dorsal column pathways synapse at which loci on their way to the sensory cortex...

Ventral Nerve Roots - - - ANS - - - Lower motors neurons primarily exit the cord through the: 1 dorsal nerve roots 2 ventral nerve roots 3 dorsal columns 4 dorsal root ganglia Glutamate - - - ANS - - - Which one of the following is an excitatory neurotransmitter? 1 GABA 2 Glutamate 3 Glycine 4 Phenylalanine GABA - - - ANS - - - Which one of the following is an inhibitory neurotransmitter? 1 GABA 2 Serotonin 3 Dopamine 4 Phenlalanine the meninges - - - ANS - - - The layers of prot...

What is the initial event that occurs when the action potential threshold of a neuron is reached? - Voltage gated Sodium channels open What does the sodium potassium pump do? - Pumps K+ into cell and Na out of cell Which of the following has the greatest effect on SSEP Monitoring? -Fentanyl -Diazepam -Pavulon -Sevoflourane - -Diazepam Which of the following is a barbituate? -Remifentanil -Methohexital -Curare -Nitrous Oxide - -Methohexital Desflurane has more rapid onset and recover...

In BAEP's, cochlear nucleus lesion causes? - Increased III-V, increased I-V Which modality is most useful in monitoring the integrity of the corticospinal tracts during resection of an intramedullary spinal cord tumor? - D-Waves The stimulus used in a brainstem auditory evoked potential study is a click with a peak acoustic power in the range of - 2000 to 4000Hz Which of the following tibial nerve responses is not a near field response? - N31 How many amperes of current will flow in a cir...

___________ is the single most important step taken to avoid contamination. a. washing hands b. using a transportation barrier c. using gloves d. using protective eyewear - a. washing hands "Case specific monitoring" should include: a. the number of channels you will use for each case b. the modality(s) you will monitor for a specific case c. the anesthetic regimen used for each case d. the machine you will use for each case - b. the modality(s) you will monitor for a specific case ...

During a median nerve preoperative study, a patient has discomfort at the wrist. Stimulation electrodes are 10 mm gold disk, stimulus intensity is 20 mA, and stimulus duration is 100 μsec. Which of the following would most likely reduce the patient's discomfort while maintaining adequate stimulation? - Decrease number of repetitions What is not an advantage of epidural recordings? - Absence of significant artifact The stimulation rate is determined by the - analysis time Somatosensory ev...

electrical responses of the nervous system to sensory stimuli and are analyzed to assess the Integrity of portions of the nervous system - somatosensory evoked potentials SSEP's are recorded from both the Central and peripheral nervous systems True/False - True somatosensory evoked potentials only record short latency evoked potentials True/False - True short latency evoked potentials typically last less then 30 milliseconds and are resistant to changes in level of consciousness (True/F...