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Post-Mortem Care 2 Where they take every service members that passed away, an air force base where they can do autopsies? - Answer- Dover How is death pronounced? - Answer- Performed as dictated by guidelines IAW Hospital SOP Who declares death? - Answer- Physician What should be documented in the patient record after a patient dies? - Answer- Time of death and a description of actions and therapies taken. Death Certificate is required by - Answer- U.S. laws Why are death cer...

Post Mortem Care Expired - Answer- Died Post mortem care - Answer- the physical care of the deceased and the emotional care of family Who can pronounce death - Answer- RN with order to pronounce MD NP Pronouncing - Answer- no vitals for 1 minute and again in 5 minutesex Family present - Answer- at 1 minute notify them after 5 minutes patient is dead At death - Answer- closing eyelids cleaning mouth check for vomitus head and neck placed under pillow to prevent levity (purp...

POST MORTEM CARE The nurse tells the NAP: "Mrs. Jones passed away this morning. The family has asked that we go ahead and complete the care of her body. Will you go to room 113 and get started? I will assist you after I give Mr. James his medication." Which of the following statements is true regarding this situation? A. The NAP cannot perform post-mortem care at all B. The NAP must have the nurse come with her to perform all care C. The NAP should prepare the body for autopsy D...

POST MORTEM CARE CHAPTER 42 what are the nurses responsibilities when it comes to post mortem care - Answer- -caring for patients body -caring for family -discharging specific legal responsibilities what are the specific legal responsibilities that a nurse is responsible for in post mortem care - Answer- -ensuring a death certificate is issued and signed -labeling the body -reviewing organ donation arrangements what should a nurse do immediately before death - Answer- notify the fam...

Praxis principles of learning and teaching: grades 7-12 Through CONSTRUCTIVISM how is Knowledge constructed? - Answer- learning is an active process of constructing knowledge rather than acquiring it. learning as experience, problem-based learning, zone of proximal development, scaffolding, discovery learning What are the basic cognitive processes. - Answer- sensation, perception, attention, memory, What are the complex cognitive process. - Answer- intelligence, thought, language ...

Principles of Learning and Teaching (PLT): Grades 7-12 (5624) — Form 1 According to social learning theory, which of the following introductions to a spelling lesson is most likely to result in students' successful learning? A. "If you learn some basic spelling rules, you will become a better speller." B. "Let's see how many spelling rules you can write down in one minute." C. "Let's use your last composition to identify some words you don't know how to spell....

Praxis Principles of Learning and Teaching: Grades 7-12 PLT Bandura - Answer- "Social Learning Theory" - Behavior can be learned through the observations of others. theorist Bruner - Answer- Discovery learning and constructivism. theorist Dewey - Answer- Learning Through Experience and father of progressive education. theorist Piaget - Answer- 4 Stages of Cognitive Development. theorist vygotsky - Answer- Zone of Proximal Development "social development theory of learning...

PRAXIS PLT GRADES: 7-12 Abraham Maslow - Answer- Associated with 5 Hierarchy of needs: 1. Physiological 2. Safety 3. Love and belongingness 4. Esteem 5. Self-Actualization: Peace, Self-fulfillment Abraham Maslow - Answer- Lower level needs must be satisfied before individuals can progress to higher levels of achievement. Achievement Tests - Answer- Designed to measure a student's knowledge or profiency in something that has been taught or learned; used in a variety of subjects ...

Praxis Principles of Learning and Teaching: Grades 7-12 PLT Bandura - Answer- Theorist - "Social Learning Theory" Children learn by observing others. Model behaviors and skills. Cognitive and Behavioral. 1. attention 2. retention 3. motor reproduction 4. motivation Bruner - Answer- Theorist - Cognition - "Constructivist Theory." Discovery learning and scaffolding. Learning is an active process, learners construct ideas based on knowledge or past experiences. Instruction sh...

Praxis Principles of Learning and Teaching 7-12 Bandura - Answer- Social Learning Theory Observational learning learn through watching Bruner - Answer- discovery learning and scaffolding Dewey - Answer- Learning through experience father of progressive education Piaget - Answer- Stages of Cognitive Development Vygotsky - Answer- Zone of proximal development Kohlberg - Answer- Theory of moral development Bloom - Answer- Higher order thinking, engaging students in critical...

EBTM 365 FINAL Which of the following most closely describes dependent demand? A. demand generated by suppliers B. estimates of demand using regression analysis of independent variables C. derived demand D. demands placed on suppliers by their customers E. net material requirements - Answer-C. derived demand A visual depiction of the subassemblies and components that are needed to produce and/or assemble a product is called a(n): A. assembly time chart B. product structure tree ...

EBTM 365-TOWSON Value Add - Answer-- Technically: Value add is the difference between the cost of inputs and the value or price of outputs. - Reality: If you are not adding value that the customer recognizes and wants - you are out of business. Productivity - Answer-the effective use of resources Why Productivity? - Answer-- High productivity >>>>> Lower Costs - Effects on competitiveness - Effects on inflation (pencil maker) Single Factor Productivity - Answer-La...

EBTM 365 Bottleneck operation - Answer-An operation that limits output in the production sequence Economies of scale - Answer-If the output rate is less than the optimal level, increasing output rate results in decreasing average unit costs Impacts of capacity decisions - Answer-impacts ability to meet future demands and long range planning Capacity planning - Answer-the upper limit or ceiling on the load that an operating unit can handle Demand exceeds capacity - Answer-restricts...

EBTM 365 EXAM 1 Scheduling - Answer-flexibility, efficiency Inventory - Answer-costs, shortages Maintenance - Answer-costs, equipment, reliability, productivity Supply Chains - Answer-costs, quality, agility, vendor relations, shortages Projects - Answer-costs, new products, services, or operating systems Which is the narrower concept? - Answer-Efficiency Factors that always decrease productivity - Answer-high labor turnover & viruses Marketing influences competitiveness ...

Defensive Driving Strategies For Emergency Vehicle Operations Which of the following is a defensive strategy tat was covered in the course? - Answer- Leave room for an out What is the purpose of a safety zone? - Answer- It provides drives with room to brake or maneuver if needed to avoid a collision A vehicle's left turn signal is on. According to the defensive driving strategies learned in the course, what should a driver following this vehicle do? - Answer- Slow down in case the ve...

ADVANCED FIREFIGHTER Certification requirements of advanced technician firefighter - Answer- Successful completion of class, employee of FD, skills completion, completion of adavances ff objectives, state test 70%, certified basic ff, FSVO, NIMS 200, VMO Role of the advanced FF in organization - Answer- Coordinate and interior fire attack line team, extinguish and ignitable liquid fire, control a flammable gas cylinder, protect evidence of fire cause and origin, perform annual service test...

OSFM VEHICLE & MACHINERY OPS Two procedures that make airbag systems less likely to deploy during rescue operations are: - Answer- Shut off ignition and disconnect electrical power to the vehicle as soon as possible. When confronted with a fuel leak or spill: - Answer- Rescuers should identify the source position multipurpose, dry - chemical fire extinguisher as a quick way to establish a basic level of standby fire suppression. Weather, time of day, and location is all that command nee...

VMO STATE TEST 2.0 How large is the hot zone with no fuel, fire, or spill hazard - Answer- 50' in all direction How large is the hot zone with vehicles on fire - Answer- 100' in all directions 1 gallon of properly vaporized gas is equal to the explosive force of ___ sticks of dynamite - Answer- 88 Most actions initiated by the rescue crews are to - Answer- prevent hazard escalation Leading cause of injury on accident scene - Answer- lack of PPE A Primary law enforcement f...

Advanced Firefighter Technician How is foam used as a suppression agent? - Answer- Removes oxygen Foam % - Answer- Class A materials 0.1 to 1% Class B materials 3-6% Foam Application - Answer- -Roll-on is used for a burning liquid spill -Bank-Down is used when an elevated object is near a burning pool of liquid -Rain-Down is used when the other two methods are not feasible and on above ground storage tanks Class A foam - Answer- Foam specially designed for use on Class A combu...

VMO FINAL EXAM IFSI The first and most important safety procedure for emergency personnel to undertake at a crash scene with liquid or spills - Answer- Recognition and Identification When does the preliminary size up begin ? - Answer- when the alarm sounds Pre arrival size up factors will not include - Answer- number of patients At a vehicle accident the IC can .... - Answer- Do a 360 degree walk around the survey Assign an individual to do a 360 degree walk around scene survey ...