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How many external ID's can you have per object? - correct answer 3 How many custom/AppExchange apps can be installed in PE? - correct answer 5 How many fields (columns) can be displayed on a Customizable Related List? - correct answer 10 How many custom tabs can you have in PE? - correct answer 10 How many custom/AppExchange apps can be installed in EE? - correct answer 10 What is the maximum number of Suggested Solutions that can be displayed? - correct answer 10 ...

Tab Standard objects (10+)? - correct answer Account, Campaign, Case, Contact, Contract, Lead, Opportunity, Solution, Order, Product, Reports, Dashboards, Forecasts + (other objects) Price Books, Quote, CampaignMember, Service Contracts, Entitlements Record Types - identify objects (10)? - correct answer Account, Contact, Contract, Case, Campaign, Lead, Opportunity, Solution, Quote, Order + Custom Objects Chatter tabs (4)? - correct answer People, Profile, Groups, Files Document...

How many custom fields can be created on an object? - correct answer Up to 800 custom fields per object for unlimited Edition. Master-Detail Relationships - correct answer .Child records must have a parent .Record level security cascades from the parent to the child records .Record deletion cascades from the parent to the child records (delete the parent, the child is also deleted) .Roll-up summary fields can be created on the parent record .Standard objects cannot be the detail objec...

1. What should a system administrator use to disable access to a custom application for a group of users? A. Profiles B. Sharing rules C. Web tabs D. Page layouts - correct answer A. Profiles 2. Universal Containers needs to track the manufacturer and model for specific car companies. How can the system administrator ensure that the manufacturer selected influences the values available for the model? A. Create the manufacturer field as a dependent picklist and the model as a contro...

1. What should a system administrator use to disable access to a custom application for a group of users? A. Profiles B. Sharing rules C. Web tabs D. Page layouts - correct answer A. Profiles 2. Universal Containers needs to track the manufacturer and model for specific car companies. How can the system administrator ensure that the manufacturer selected influences the values available for the model? A. Create the manufacturer field as a dependent picklist and the model as a contr...

The Analytics - Reports and Dashboards section makes up what percentage of the Administrator Certification exam? - correct answer 10% Which key topics are covered in the Analytics - Reports and Dashboards section of the Administrator Certification exam? - correct answer Report creation, dashboard components, and data sharing A sales manager at Ursa Major Solar wants a team of sales reps to know how many open opportunities they have at any given time. How should an administrator conf...

A patient is wheezing and short of breath. The nurse assesses a heart rate of 88 beats per minute, a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 124/78 mm Hg. The prescriber orders a nonspecific beta-agonist medication. Besides evaluating the patient for a reduction in respiratory distress, the nurse should monitor for which side effect? - correct answer Tachycardia Beta-agonists are used for asthma because of their B2 on bronchial smooth muscle-causes bronchodilatio...

A patient is brought to the emergency department with shortness of breath, a respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute, intercostal retractions, and frothy, pink sputum. Which drug should the provider administer for this patient? - correct answer Furosemide which is a loop diuretic and is rapid acting Hydrochlorothiazide and spironolactone are not indicated because their diuretic effects are less rapid A patient with a recent onset of nephrosclerosis has been taking an ACE inhibitor an...

An older adult patient with severe gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) has had only minimal relief using a histamine2-receptor antagonist (H2RA). The patient is to begin taking omeprazole. What should the provider teach this patient? - correct answer Long-term therapy may be needed for severe GERD A patient is diagnosed with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. Which medication should the provider order for this patient? - correct answer Ranitidine which is a H2 receptor antagonist BID Zol...

A patient has an infection caused by Streptococcus pyogenes. The prescriber is considering prescribing dicloxacillin PO. What should the provider do? - correct answer Question the need for a penicillinase-resistant penicillin Provider should consider prescribing another drug A nurse practitioner is teaching a nursing student about a specific acquired immune system. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching? - correct answer "The skin is a factor in specific ...

A heavy smoker is in the ER complaining of generalized fatigue. He claims that he is always out of breath and has no more energy. His only medications are bronchodilators, which he rarely uses. Auscultation reveals enhanced resonance of voice sounds in his left chest. What is the most likely cause of this physical finding? A. Asthma B. Pneumonia C. Emphysema D. Pneumothorax - correct answer B. Pneumonia. Egophony is an increased resonance of voice sounds when a medical professional auscult...

1. A 55-year-old male with a 75 pack-year history of smoking presents to the clinic to establish primary care and discuss age-appropriate screening options for cancer. His pulse rate is 78/min, blood pressure is 140/80 mmHg, and saturation at room air is 96%. Air entry is decreased bilaterally with occasional rhonchi and crepitations on chest auscultation. He is advised by the primary care provider to undergo a low dose CT scan (LDCT) for screening. Which of the following are the criteria for un...

An advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) is gathering data for an ongoing research project. In the project, the APRN is interviewing individual patients as well as conducting focused group sessions with multiple patients. Which type of research design is being used by the APRN? a. Quasi-experimental b. Qualitative c. Experimental d. Descriptive - correct answer ANS: B Qualitative research relies on data obtained by the researcher from first-hand observation, interviews, questionna...

What is the most prevalent sexually transmitted disease in the United States? - correct answer Chlamydia. 50% of women are asymptomatic. Increased incidence in women using OC, because pills cause cervical ectopia and makes a woman more vulnerable. Symptoms are mucopurulent discharge from the cervix, wet mount will revel a high WBC. Diagnosis is by cervical culture, treatment is with antibiotics. High incidence of coexisting gonorrhea infection. How long should you leave a diaphragm in after...

What is the most prevalent sexually transmitted disease in the United States? - correct answer Chlamydia. 50% of women are asymptomatic. Increased incidence in women using OC, because pills cause cervical ectopia and makes a woman more vulnerable. Symptoms are mucopurulent discharge from the cervix, wet mount will revel a high WBC. Diagnosis is by cervical culture, treatment is with antibiotics. High incidence of coexisting gonorrhea infection. How long should you leave a diaphragm in after ...

"Midwives believe that every woman has a right to a safe, satisfying birth in the setting of her own choice, with respect for human dignity, cultural sensitivity, and informed choice." The quote is an example of a: - correct answer Philosophy of Care In which portion of the fallopian tubes does fertilization normally occur? - correct answer the ampulla A prenatal factor that may cause a hemorrhage is - correct answer grand multipara During an abdominal examination of a woman at ...

Serum HCG rapidly rises until _____________ days of gestation. - correct answer 41 days Clonus - correct answer clonus is a sign of neuromuscular irritability that usually reflects severe pre-eclampsia. Clonus is involuntary and rhythmic muscle contractions Fetal growth is greatest between the... - correct answer 6th and 7th month Lightening - correct answer the sensation that a pregnant woman feels when the baby drops Leopold's Maneuvers - correct answer A series of four ...

Indications for complete genetic eval - correct answer AMA, personal or family hx of defects, abnormal screening indications for hcg - correct answer high: hydatidiform mole low rising: ectopic pregnancy dropping: loss or pregnancy greater than 12 weeks what is included in first trimester screening - correct answer biochemical makers: hcg, PAPP-A, high in down's syndrome NT screening: increase = fetal aneuoploidy, cardiac, others what time frame is first trimester screening co...

All of the following birth defects could be detected by genetic screening: - correct answer Autosomal abnormalities, neural tube defects, thalassemia The difference between a disinfectant and an antiseptic is that: - correct answer A disinfectant is used on lifeless objects only, while antiseptic is used on the skin's surface What essential vitamin is a strict vegan mother most likely to be deficient in? - correct answer Vitamin B12 When is the first time FHTs are heard by the Do...

Menstrual discharge does not consist of: - correct answer Glycogen Match the definition to its word parts. liver - correct answer hepato The functional capacity of the breast to make milk is most determined by: - correct answer Infant's nursing frequency Match the following word part with its meaning. tachy- - correct answer fast Describe the head of the embryo relative to the trunk and heart in the sixth week. - correct answer The head is much larger, trunk is bent over...