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What are different tools to assess pain? - 1-10 scale, face scale When is a patient's pain level tolerable? - When they say it is How soon after giving a pain medication should you reassess a patient's pain level? - IV - 30min or less, PO - 30min-1hr What are standard precautions used for? - Every patient What is droplet precautions used for? - Flu, RSV, Pertussis, R/O Meningitis A patient with pneumonia pneumonia is on which type of precaution? - Standard - however is the patient is co...

Desire to understand and be sensitive to feelings, beliefs and situation. - Empathy This is the expression of value and flexibility to meet the patients' needs based on their unique situation. - Respect Ability to respond truthfully. - Genuineness Ability to respond using specific terms - Concreteness This is used to clarify the message received or decoding the actual meaning. - Confrontation Be aware of cultural preferences related to eye contact, space, and touch. - Therapeutic communi...

Under the Incident Command System, the __________ is responsible for determining the strategic goals for control of an incident. Question 1 options: 1) Incident Commander 2) Operations Officer 3) Planning Officer 4) Administration Officer - 1) Incident Commander In the Incident Management System, who is the one person ultimately responsible for managing an incident? Question 2 options: 1) A Chief Officer 2) The Planning Chief 3) The Incident Commander 4) The Operations Chief - 3) Th...

What is the usual cause of overheating in high speed, grease-lubricated antifriction bearing - Faulty mounting practices How can too much wear in gears be reduced - Proper meshed Why are timing belts made with teeth - Doesn't slip The insert, or spider, used in flexible jaw couplings is meant to - Transmit torque and accept misalignment Clutches on machinery provide for disengaging and may also - Interrupt the power supply What determines the selection of gear reducer size - Torque and s...

An amount of money you pay to help cover a portion of your medical costs - Co-payment Insurance that covers property damage and medical bills if you are at fault in a car accident or if someone gets hurt on your property - Liability Which of the following statements about disability insurance is false? - Disability insurance is not necessary if you have a good health insurance policy Applies to the amount of protection you have through an insurance company in the event of a loss - Coverage...

Which of the following is considered part of the Device Master Record? A. Employee training record B. Labeling specifications C. Design reviews D. Calibration records - B. Labeling specifications Question Feedback: Labeling specifications are part of the DMR A company has a new oral drug, GOODDRUG, it wishes to market in the US. Studies on intravenous GOODDRUG have been conducted by several academic centers demonstrating safety and efficacy and have been published in peer-reviewed journa...

Which of the following is NOT required for compliance under 21 CFR Part 11 (electronic records and electronic signatures)? A Manually generated timestamped audit trails to record the date and time of operator entries and actions that create, modify or delete electronic records. B Validation of systems to ensure accuracy C Authority checks to ensure that only authorized personell can create, modify or delete electronic records. D Establishment of and adherence to written procedures - A. T...

A medical device manufacturer is preparing a submission that requires a Declaration of Conformity with design control requirements. What type of submission is the manufacturer preparing to submit to FDA? 0 A PMA 1 A Special 510(k), 2 An Individual Device Exemption (IDE), 3 An Annual Report for a PMA - A Special 510(k) A company wishes to expand existing labeling for a medical device to include a new indication for use. What action should the regulatory professional take FIRST? - Contact t...

You are assisting a Brigade Task Force in preparing for a field exercise. The Task Force will spend 14 days in the field. Their ration cycle M-M-M for 2 days and U(H&S)-M-U(A) for 12 days. The Task Force has a head count of 1400 personnel to feed for each meal. 1) How many modules of group rations and cases of MREs will be needed for the duration of the FTX? If you get a partial case or module round up to a whole case/module. - Total MRE cases = 2,100 cases UGR (H&S) = 336 Mods UGR (A) = 3...

When was the Quartermaster rating established? - 1798 What rating was disestablished in 2003 and folded into the Quartermaster rating? - Signalman Which of the following is NOT a duty of a Quartermaster? A. Compute tide and tidal current data B. Conduct weather observations C. Determine compass and gyro error D. Perform small boat handling - Perform small boat handling Who is ultimately responsible for the training and performance of the navigation team? - CO Who is responsible for admin...

Both qualitative and quantitative aspects should be studied when analyzing a problem . a. True b. False - a. Quantitative analysis is a logical, rational, and scientific approach to decision making. a. True b. False - a. A ___________ model is one in which all parameters used in the model are known with complete certainty - deterministic The __________ category of business analytics involves the use of optimization models . - prescriptive An input for a model is an example...

The Malware Monitoring option should only be enabled for: (A) Applications with a "malware" tag (B) Internal facing applications (C) External facing applications (D) Both internal and external facing applications - (C) External facing applications Where can you "Ignore" a vulnerability for a Web Application? (select two) (Choose all that apply) (A) Scorecard Report (B) Scan Report (C) Web Application Report (D) Detections Tab - (B) Scan Report (D) Detection Tab A Search List conta...

Which of the following are benefits of scanning in authenticated mode? (choose 2) - Fewer confirmed vulnerabilities - More vulnerabilities are detected - Time saved from manually investigating potential vulnerabilities - More accurate scan details - - More vulnerabilities are detected - Time saved from manually investigating potential vulnerabilities Which of the following are valid options for scanning targets? (choose 3). - Asset Groups - Domain Name - IP addressing - Asset Tags -...

List the default tracking methods available for adding assets to your "scanning" subscription. (Select Three) (A) DNS Name (B) NetBIOS Name (C) CVE ID (D)Qualys Host ID (E) IP Address - (A) DNS Name (B) NetBIOS Name (E) IP Address Name the phase or step of the Qualys Vulnerability Management Lifecycle that produces scan results containing vulnerability findings? (A) Report (B) Discover (C) Remediate (D) Assess - (D) Assess Which of the following is the default tracking method us...

Identify the different Qualys sensors that collect data from your environment. (Select all that apply)*** (A) Scanner (B) Cloud Agents (C) Passive Sensor (D) Container Sensor (E) Cloud Connector - (A) Scanner (B) Cloud Agents (C) Passive Sensor (D) Container Sensor (E) Cloud Connector _______________ is a lightweight agent that can be installed on clients and servers for real-time visibility.*** (A) Container Sensor (B) Scanner (C) API (D) Cloud Agent - Cloud Agent Which of the...

Using the "Search" field (found in the VULNERABILITIES section of the VM Dashboard), which query will produce a list of "patchable" vulnerabilities? (A)sPatchable:TRUE (B)sPatchable:FALSE (C)Patchable:FALSE (D)Patchable:TRUE - (D)Patchable:TRUE Which of the following conventions can be used to include or assign host assets to a job? (choose 2) (Select all that apply) (A) Asset Name (B) Asset Group (C) Business Unit (D) Asset Tag - (A) Asset Name (D) Asset Tag The __________ proc...

Which of these is a reason for using a Patch Management solution? (A) To monitor logs on the asset (B) To scan for viruses (C) To close open ports and services (D) To address vulnerabilities - (D) To address vulnerabilities Which of these Qualys solutions would you use to address vulnerabilities on your assets? (A) Vulnerability Management (B) Patch Management (C) Endpoint Detection and Response (D) Policy Compliance - (B) Patch Management Which of these sensors does Qualys use to depl...

Identify the Qualys application modules that require Cloud Agent. (Choose all that apply) (A) EDR (B) VM (C) PM (D) FIM - (A) EDR (C) PM (D) FIM A Cloud Agent status indicates the agent uploaded new host data, and an assessment of the host was performed within the Qualys Cloud Platform. Which one from the following options is it? (A) Scan Complete (B) Provisioned (C) Manifest Downloaded (D) Configuration Downloaded - (A) Scan Complete From all the tasks associated with the Provisi...

Identify the correct answer If a QMHA reports they met with a client, when in fact, they did not, and the program bills for that meeting, that is typically considered Medicaid fraud. If a QMHA reports meeting with a client for an hour, when they only met with the client for 7 minutes, that is typically considered: a. A training issue requiring corrective action with the QMHA. b. A supervision issue, because the QMHA needs support in learning how to better engage with clients to maintain co...

The difference between California's laws and the Department of Pesticide Regulation's regulations is that laws are? - Passed by the California legislature amd regulations are adopted by the Department of Pesticide regulation to carry out laws Which of the following is NOT one of the purposes of California's pesticide and pest control laws and regulations? - Encouraging people to use more pesticides A cooperating agency that helps the Department of Pesticide Regulation enforce pesticide u...