1|Page
CEA EXAM NEWEST 2025 ACTUAL EXAM
COMPLETE 250 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS)
|ALREADY GRADED A+||BRAND NEW!!
The patient is exhibiting a productive cough and a low-
grade fever. Chest X-ray on PA view shows a left lower
chest area of consolidation adjacent to the left border
of the heart approximately 2 rib spaces above the
costophrenic angle. The lateral x-ray view shows this
lesion absent of the window posterior to the cardiac
silhouette. Which is the most likely location of this area
of focal consolidation?
*Left upper lobe apex
*Right middle lobe
*Left upper lobe lingula
*Left lower lobe - .....ANSWER ...✔✔ Left upper lobe
lingula
Ratonale: Lingular consolidation is described in this
question precisely. If the cardiac margin/silhouette is
obliterated by the mass, the lesion is either right middle
lobe or left upper lobe lingula.
,2|Page
The inability to fully relax the myocardium during
relaxation is a trademark of which of the following
diagnoses? - .....ANSWER ...✔✔ Diastolic dysfunction
Rationale: The inability for the heart to relax is a
trademark of the diagnosis of diastolic dysfunction and
is common in patients with thickened hypertrophic
myocardium.
An otherwise healthy African American adult male has
been diagnosed with hypertension. He has been
restricting his salt intake, eating a DASH (Dietary
Approaches to Stop Hypertension) diet, and exercising
more, but his blood pressure is still elevated. Which is
the BEST medication to prescribe him? - .....ANSWER
...✔✔ Calcium channel blocker
Rationale: African American patients per JNC8
Hypertension Guidelines should be managed with a
dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker such as
amlodipine (Norvasc) as first line management therapy
for hypertension not at goal with DASH and lifestyle
modifications.
Your patient has been diagnosed with a 4.5cm
ascending aortic aneurysm. Which medical imaging is
considered standard of care for serial surveillance? -
.....ANSWER ...✔✔ CT angiography of the chest
,3|Page
Rationale: CT angiography is considered the standard
of care for measuring vascular luminal dimensions with
contrast. CT PE protocol is not timed properly for the
aorta (it's timed for the pulmonary artery). Although a
plain film is able to catch large aneurysms at times, they
are not able to provide multi-axis reconstruction needed
to accurately measure the size. Transesophageal echo is
not needed to accurately measure the aorta and
requires the patient to undergo sedation which is
unnecessary.
Which of the following medications does not cause beta
1 stimulation? - .....ANSWER ...✔✔ phenylephrine
Rationale: Phenylephrine only stimulates alpha 1
receptors. The remaining three all have beta receptor
activity.
A 50-year-old woman with a history of hypertension
presents with dyspnea on exertion and orthopnea. On
examination, she has jugular venous distention and
bilateral crackles on lung auscultation. What is the most
likely diagnosis? - .....ANSWER ...✔✔ Congestive
heart failure
Rationale: Of the available options, the most accurate
response is congestive heart failure as it is signifying
both a right ventricular back up with jugular venous
extension and crackles on lung assault, which are
, 4|Page
suggestive of left ventricular back up. it is possible the
patient may have an acute myocardial infarction that
precipitated this, however, a patient has not described
that, rather is only describing dyspnea on exertion and
orthopnea, which both speak to a state of fluid
overload. The only appropriate response of these
available is congestive heart failure.
Your patient with a history of HFrEF (heart failure with
reduced ejection fraction) with an ejection fraction of
40% who is also not on optimal medical therapy has
been diagnosed with a myocardial infarction this
admission and received emergent placement of a drug-
eluting stent to the left anterior descending artery. As
the medical home who will manage this patient after
discharge, which medication strategy would you expect
to be a priority in the patient's care? - .....ANSWER
...✔✔ Ordering a transthoracic echocardiogram and
order a Lifevest if EF is less than 35%
Rationale: The patient should have a protective
mechanism such as an implantable automated
cardioverter defibrillator (AICD) or a Lifevest if the EF is
less than 35% due to the increased risk of sudden
cardiac death with low EF states. Since most patients are
not eligible for 90 days for an AICD in this state,
optimizing their medication regimen and repeating an
echo in 2-3 months to re-evaluate for improvement in
their EF is required by most insurance companies. A
CEA EXAM NEWEST 2025 ACTUAL EXAM
COMPLETE 250 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS)
|ALREADY GRADED A+||BRAND NEW!!
The patient is exhibiting a productive cough and a low-
grade fever. Chest X-ray on PA view shows a left lower
chest area of consolidation adjacent to the left border
of the heart approximately 2 rib spaces above the
costophrenic angle. The lateral x-ray view shows this
lesion absent of the window posterior to the cardiac
silhouette. Which is the most likely location of this area
of focal consolidation?
*Left upper lobe apex
*Right middle lobe
*Left upper lobe lingula
*Left lower lobe - .....ANSWER ...✔✔ Left upper lobe
lingula
Ratonale: Lingular consolidation is described in this
question precisely. If the cardiac margin/silhouette is
obliterated by the mass, the lesion is either right middle
lobe or left upper lobe lingula.
,2|Page
The inability to fully relax the myocardium during
relaxation is a trademark of which of the following
diagnoses? - .....ANSWER ...✔✔ Diastolic dysfunction
Rationale: The inability for the heart to relax is a
trademark of the diagnosis of diastolic dysfunction and
is common in patients with thickened hypertrophic
myocardium.
An otherwise healthy African American adult male has
been diagnosed with hypertension. He has been
restricting his salt intake, eating a DASH (Dietary
Approaches to Stop Hypertension) diet, and exercising
more, but his blood pressure is still elevated. Which is
the BEST medication to prescribe him? - .....ANSWER
...✔✔ Calcium channel blocker
Rationale: African American patients per JNC8
Hypertension Guidelines should be managed with a
dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker such as
amlodipine (Norvasc) as first line management therapy
for hypertension not at goal with DASH and lifestyle
modifications.
Your patient has been diagnosed with a 4.5cm
ascending aortic aneurysm. Which medical imaging is
considered standard of care for serial surveillance? -
.....ANSWER ...✔✔ CT angiography of the chest
,3|Page
Rationale: CT angiography is considered the standard
of care for measuring vascular luminal dimensions with
contrast. CT PE protocol is not timed properly for the
aorta (it's timed for the pulmonary artery). Although a
plain film is able to catch large aneurysms at times, they
are not able to provide multi-axis reconstruction needed
to accurately measure the size. Transesophageal echo is
not needed to accurately measure the aorta and
requires the patient to undergo sedation which is
unnecessary.
Which of the following medications does not cause beta
1 stimulation? - .....ANSWER ...✔✔ phenylephrine
Rationale: Phenylephrine only stimulates alpha 1
receptors. The remaining three all have beta receptor
activity.
A 50-year-old woman with a history of hypertension
presents with dyspnea on exertion and orthopnea. On
examination, she has jugular venous distention and
bilateral crackles on lung auscultation. What is the most
likely diagnosis? - .....ANSWER ...✔✔ Congestive
heart failure
Rationale: Of the available options, the most accurate
response is congestive heart failure as it is signifying
both a right ventricular back up with jugular venous
extension and crackles on lung assault, which are
, 4|Page
suggestive of left ventricular back up. it is possible the
patient may have an acute myocardial infarction that
precipitated this, however, a patient has not described
that, rather is only describing dyspnea on exertion and
orthopnea, which both speak to a state of fluid
overload. The only appropriate response of these
available is congestive heart failure.
Your patient with a history of HFrEF (heart failure with
reduced ejection fraction) with an ejection fraction of
40% who is also not on optimal medical therapy has
been diagnosed with a myocardial infarction this
admission and received emergent placement of a drug-
eluting stent to the left anterior descending artery. As
the medical home who will manage this patient after
discharge, which medication strategy would you expect
to be a priority in the patient's care? - .....ANSWER
...✔✔ Ordering a transthoracic echocardiogram and
order a Lifevest if EF is less than 35%
Rationale: The patient should have a protective
mechanism such as an implantable automated
cardioverter defibrillator (AICD) or a Lifevest if the EF is
less than 35% due to the increased risk of sudden
cardiac death with low EF states. Since most patients are
not eligible for 90 days for an AICD in this state,
optimizing their medication regimen and repeating an
echo in 2-3 months to re-evaluate for improvement in
their EF is required by most insurance companies. A
