NR 565 Advanced Pharmacology Final –
Chamberlain — Master Review &
Preparation Guide 2025/2026 <Latest
Version>
Unit 1: Foundational Principles & Prescriptive Authority
1. The prescriptive authority for an Advanced Practice Registered Nurse (APRN) is primarily
governed by:
A. Federal DEA regulations
B. Individual hospital policy
C. State Nurse Practice Acts ✓
D. The American Nurses Association
2. A key component of the APRN's "Scope of Practice" is:
A. It is identical in all 50 states.
B. It is determined solely by the physician collaborator.
C. It is defined by state law and includes specific permitted duties. ✓
D. It allows for independent prescribing of all medications.
3. The FDA's Pregnancy Category system has been replaced by the:
A. Drug Safety Classification
B. Pregnancy and Lactation Labeling Rule (PLLR) ✓
C. Teratogenic Risk Assessment
D. Reproductive Drug Guide
4. When initiating a new medication, the principle of "Start Low and Go Slow" is MOST critical
for which patient population?
A. Young adults
B. Elderly patients ✓
C. Middle-aged males
D. Adolescent females
5. The primary goal of Phase IV clinical trials (post-marketing surveillance) is to:
A. Determine the drug's appropriate dosage.
,B. Assess the drug's effectiveness in a controlled setting.
C. Monitor for rare or long-term adverse effects in the general population. ✓
D. Establish the drug's mechanism of action.
Unit 2: Pharmacokinetics & Pharmacodynamics
6. Pharmacokinetics is best described as:
A. The study of what the drug does to the body.
B. The study of what the body does to the drug (ADME). ✓
C. The interaction between drugs at the receptor site.
D. The therapeutic effect of a medication.
7. Which organ is primarily responsible for the metabolism of most drugs?
A. Kidneys
B. Liver ✓
C. Lungs
D. Spleen
8. A patient with severe renal impairment would require a dosage adjustment for a drug that
is:
A. Highly protein-bound.
B. Primarily excreted unchanged by the kidneys. ✓
C. Metabolized by the CYP450 system.
D. Administered topically.
9. The "First-Pass Effect" refers to:
A. Rapid drug excretion by the kidneys.
B. Significant metabolism of a drug by the liver before it reaches systemic circulation. ✓
C. The initial binding of a drug to plasma proteins.
D. The first time a patient takes a medication.
10. Two drugs that act on the same receptor, where one drug blocks the effect of the other, is
an example of:
A. Synergism
B. Potentiation
C. Antagonism ✓
D. Additive effect
Unit 3: Cardiovascular & Renal Pharmacology
,11. First-line pharmacotherapy for uncomplicated hypertension in many patients, especially
African Americans, is often:
A. ACE Inhibitors
B. Beta-Blockers
C. Thiazide Diuretics ✓
D. Calcium Channel Blockers
12. A persistent, dry cough is a classic side effect associated with which class of
antihypertensives?
A. Beta-Blockers
B. ACE Inhibitors ✓
C. ARBs (Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers)
D. Diuretics
13. Which laboratory value is critical to monitor before and during ACE Inhibitor or ARB
therapy?
A. Liver Function Tests (LFTs)
B. Serum Creatinine and Potassium ✓
C. White Blood Cell Count
D. Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone (TSH)
14. The primary mechanism of action of Statins (HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors) is:
A. Blocking cholesterol absorption in the gut.
B. Inhibiting the rate-limiting enzyme in cholesterol synthesis in the liver. ✓
C. Increasing the excretion of bile acids.
D. Enhancing lipoprotein lipase activity.
15. Which medication is a direct vasodilator used for hypertensive emergencies?
A. Metoprolol
B. Nitroprusside ✓
C. Furosemide
D. Lisinopril
16. The therapeutic goal of warfarin (Coumadin) therapy is measured by:
A. Platelet count
B. Bleeding time
C. International Normalized Ratio (INR) ✓
D. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT)
, 17. Before prescribing a nitrate for angina, it is essential to caution the patient against taking
medications for erectile dysfunction (e.g., sildenafil) due to the risk of:
A. Severe hypertension
B. Profound hypotension ✓
C. Cardiac arrhythmia
D. Priapism
18. Furosemide (Lasix) acts on which part of the nephron?
A. Proximal Convoluted Tubule
B. Ascending Loop of Henle ✓
C. Distal Convoluted Tubule
D. Collecting Duct
Unit 4: Pulmonary & Endocrinology Pharmacology
19. For quick relief of acute asthma symptoms, a SABA (Short-Acting Beta2-Agonist) such as
albuterol is used. What is the primary long-term control medication for persistent asthma?
A. Oral corticosteroids
B. Inhaled Corticosteroids (ICS) ✓
C. Leukotriene Receptor Antagonists
D. Theophylline
20. Patient education for inhaled corticosteroids should always include:
A. "Use this inhaler when you are feeling short of breath."
B. "Take this medication on an empty stomach."
C. "Rinse your mouth with water after each use to prevent oral thrush." ✓
D. "Double your dose if you are having an asthma attack."
21. Metformin is a first-line agent for Type 2 Diabetes. A key advantage is that it:
A. Does not cause hypoglycemia when used alone. ✓
B. Significantly increases insulin secretion.
C. Promotes weight gain.
D. Requires frequent blood glucose monitoring for dose adjustment.
22. A major contraindication for metformin is:
A. Hypertension
B. Osteoarthritis
C. Renal impairment (e.g., elevated serum creatinine) ✓
D. Hyperthyroidism
Chamberlain — Master Review &
Preparation Guide 2025/2026 <Latest
Version>
Unit 1: Foundational Principles & Prescriptive Authority
1. The prescriptive authority for an Advanced Practice Registered Nurse (APRN) is primarily
governed by:
A. Federal DEA regulations
B. Individual hospital policy
C. State Nurse Practice Acts ✓
D. The American Nurses Association
2. A key component of the APRN's "Scope of Practice" is:
A. It is identical in all 50 states.
B. It is determined solely by the physician collaborator.
C. It is defined by state law and includes specific permitted duties. ✓
D. It allows for independent prescribing of all medications.
3. The FDA's Pregnancy Category system has been replaced by the:
A. Drug Safety Classification
B. Pregnancy and Lactation Labeling Rule (PLLR) ✓
C. Teratogenic Risk Assessment
D. Reproductive Drug Guide
4. When initiating a new medication, the principle of "Start Low and Go Slow" is MOST critical
for which patient population?
A. Young adults
B. Elderly patients ✓
C. Middle-aged males
D. Adolescent females
5. The primary goal of Phase IV clinical trials (post-marketing surveillance) is to:
A. Determine the drug's appropriate dosage.
,B. Assess the drug's effectiveness in a controlled setting.
C. Monitor for rare or long-term adverse effects in the general population. ✓
D. Establish the drug's mechanism of action.
Unit 2: Pharmacokinetics & Pharmacodynamics
6. Pharmacokinetics is best described as:
A. The study of what the drug does to the body.
B. The study of what the body does to the drug (ADME). ✓
C. The interaction between drugs at the receptor site.
D. The therapeutic effect of a medication.
7. Which organ is primarily responsible for the metabolism of most drugs?
A. Kidneys
B. Liver ✓
C. Lungs
D. Spleen
8. A patient with severe renal impairment would require a dosage adjustment for a drug that
is:
A. Highly protein-bound.
B. Primarily excreted unchanged by the kidneys. ✓
C. Metabolized by the CYP450 system.
D. Administered topically.
9. The "First-Pass Effect" refers to:
A. Rapid drug excretion by the kidneys.
B. Significant metabolism of a drug by the liver before it reaches systemic circulation. ✓
C. The initial binding of a drug to plasma proteins.
D. The first time a patient takes a medication.
10. Two drugs that act on the same receptor, where one drug blocks the effect of the other, is
an example of:
A. Synergism
B. Potentiation
C. Antagonism ✓
D. Additive effect
Unit 3: Cardiovascular & Renal Pharmacology
,11. First-line pharmacotherapy for uncomplicated hypertension in many patients, especially
African Americans, is often:
A. ACE Inhibitors
B. Beta-Blockers
C. Thiazide Diuretics ✓
D. Calcium Channel Blockers
12. A persistent, dry cough is a classic side effect associated with which class of
antihypertensives?
A. Beta-Blockers
B. ACE Inhibitors ✓
C. ARBs (Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers)
D. Diuretics
13. Which laboratory value is critical to monitor before and during ACE Inhibitor or ARB
therapy?
A. Liver Function Tests (LFTs)
B. Serum Creatinine and Potassium ✓
C. White Blood Cell Count
D. Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone (TSH)
14. The primary mechanism of action of Statins (HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors) is:
A. Blocking cholesterol absorption in the gut.
B. Inhibiting the rate-limiting enzyme in cholesterol synthesis in the liver. ✓
C. Increasing the excretion of bile acids.
D. Enhancing lipoprotein lipase activity.
15. Which medication is a direct vasodilator used for hypertensive emergencies?
A. Metoprolol
B. Nitroprusside ✓
C. Furosemide
D. Lisinopril
16. The therapeutic goal of warfarin (Coumadin) therapy is measured by:
A. Platelet count
B. Bleeding time
C. International Normalized Ratio (INR) ✓
D. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT)
, 17. Before prescribing a nitrate for angina, it is essential to caution the patient against taking
medications for erectile dysfunction (e.g., sildenafil) due to the risk of:
A. Severe hypertension
B. Profound hypotension ✓
C. Cardiac arrhythmia
D. Priapism
18. Furosemide (Lasix) acts on which part of the nephron?
A. Proximal Convoluted Tubule
B. Ascending Loop of Henle ✓
C. Distal Convoluted Tubule
D. Collecting Duct
Unit 4: Pulmonary & Endocrinology Pharmacology
19. For quick relief of acute asthma symptoms, a SABA (Short-Acting Beta2-Agonist) such as
albuterol is used. What is the primary long-term control medication for persistent asthma?
A. Oral corticosteroids
B. Inhaled Corticosteroids (ICS) ✓
C. Leukotriene Receptor Antagonists
D. Theophylline
20. Patient education for inhaled corticosteroids should always include:
A. "Use this inhaler when you are feeling short of breath."
B. "Take this medication on an empty stomach."
C. "Rinse your mouth with water after each use to prevent oral thrush." ✓
D. "Double your dose if you are having an asthma attack."
21. Metformin is a first-line agent for Type 2 Diabetes. A key advantage is that it:
A. Does not cause hypoglycemia when used alone. ✓
B. Significantly increases insulin secretion.
C. Promotes weight gain.
D. Requires frequent blood glucose monitoring for dose adjustment.
22. A major contraindication for metformin is:
A. Hypertension
B. Osteoarthritis
C. Renal impairment (e.g., elevated serum creatinine) ✓
D. Hyperthyroidism
