WGU D489|CYBER MANAGEMENT TASK PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS | ALREADY GRADED A+<RECENT VERSION>

WGU D489|CYBER MANAGEMENT TASK PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS | ALREADY GRADED A+&lt;RECENT VERSION&gt; 1) The Model for Improvement begins with three questions designed to clarify the following concepts: (A) Plan, do, act (B) Mission, goal, strategy (C) Aims, measures, changes (D) Will, ideas, and execution - ANSWER (C) Aims, measures, changes 2) After assembling a team and working through the three questions of the Model for Improvement, the orthopedic clinic decides to implement an automated reminder phone call 24 hours prior to each clinical appointment. The clinic's improvement team hopes that this small change will improve scheduling. What is the team's next step? (A) Take a well-deserved break. (B) Develop their project-level measures. (C) Test their change plan using the PDSA cycle. (D) Report their results to clinic leadership and prepare a poster for a national meeting. - ANSWER (C) Test their change plan using the PDSA cycle. 3) The orthopedic clinic plans the change to improve scheduling, and then it carries out a small test of change with three patients on Tuesday morning. What's the next thing the clinic's improvement team should do? (A) Change their measures. (B) Measure to see if the change led to improvement. (C) Report their results to the clinic leadership and prepare a poster for a national meeting. (D) Implement the new scheduling process based upon their initial impressions of how everything is working. - ANSWER (B) Measure to see if the change led to improvement. 4) When trying to improve a process, one reason to use PDSA cycles rather than a more traditional version of the scientific method (such as a randomized, controlled trial) is that: (A) PDSA cycles are easier to run with a large team of people. (B) The results of PDSA cycles are more generalizable than other methods. (C) PDSA cycles are simpler to use than other methods. (D) PDSA cycles provide a mechanism to adjust improvement ideas as the project progresses. (E) Both C and D - ANSWER (E) Both C and D 5) We aim to reduce harm and improve patient safety for all of our internal and external customers. (A) Strong (B) Weak - ANSWER (B) Weak 6) By June of 2015, we will reduce the incidence of pressure ulcers in the critical care unit by 50 percent. (A) Strong (B) Weak - ANSWER (A) Strong 7) We will reduce all types of hospital-acquired infections. (A) Strong (B) Weak - ANSWER (B) Weak 8) Our most recent data reveal that, on average, we reconcile the medications of only 35 percent of our discharged inpatients. We intend to increase this average system-wide to 50 percent by April 1, 2017, and to 75 percent by August, 31, 2017. (A) Strong (B) Weak - ANSWER (A) Strong 9) Having a clear aim statement is important in quality improvement work because: (A) Aim statements provide a clear and specific goal for the organization to reach. (B) All grant agencies require clear aim statements when they are considering funding requests. (C) Aim statements remove all obstacles from quality improvement projects. (D) The leaders of all organizations expect to see these types of goals. - ANSWER (A) Aim statements provide a clear and specific goal for the organization to reach. 10) An aim statement should include the following: (A) Specific time frame, team membership, and numeric goals (B) Numeric goals, specific time frame, and the patient population or system affected (C) Patient population or system affected, estimated cost of improvement, and numeric goals (D) All of the above - ANSWER (B) Numeric goals, specific time frame, and the patient population or system affected 11) Brenda, an emergency room nurse, notes that there seems to be a significant delay between the ordering and the administration of pain medications in her department. She decides to conduct a small improvement project to reduce this delay and obtains the support of the charge nurse (head nurse). Which of the following is the most effective aim statement for this project? (A) Within one month, 95 percent of physicians will tell nurses when a pain medication is ordered on emergency room patients. (B) Within three months, the emergency department will administer all pain medications within 45 minutes of order time. (C) Within two months, improve the timeliness of pain medication delivery by allowing nurses to stock the most commonly used medications in the emergency unit (D) Within three months, the emergency department will improve the timeliness of pain medication delivery to 100 percent of patients. - ANSWER (B) Within three months, the emergency department will administer all pain medications within 45 minutes of order time. 12) The charge nurse in the emergency room asks Brenda to assemble a team to improve the delivery of pain medication. As she considers who to place on the team, Brenda should: (A) Review the aim statement to make sure the team includes representatives of all processes affected by the team's aim. (B) Create a team of volunteers. (C) Create a team of managers and administrators. (D) Make sure only nurses are on the team, as they are the most likely to help her achieve her aim. - ANSWER (A) Review the aim statement to make sure the team includes representatives of all processes affected by the team's aim. 13) During Brenda's first group meeting, the members ask to review the aim statement to make sure they agree it addresses the current problem. With Brenda's approval, they all decide to rewrite it. However, when they meet to consider what would be a better aim statement, the group loses direction. In order to help them, Brenda might want to: (A) Reconsider who should be on the improvement team. (B) Move the meeting to a later date, so that she can come better prepared. (C) Explain to the group that the aim is set, as both she and the charge nurse have already agreed on the wording. (D) Remind the team of the Institute of Medicine's dimensions of health care quality. - ANSWER (D) Remind the team of the Institute of Medicine's dimensions of health care quality. 14) Aim: Reduce the incidence of ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) by reducing the number of ventilator days in the intensive care unit (ICU) by 20 percent within five months. Average number of days on mechanical ventilation (A) Outcome measure (B) Process measure (C) Balancing measure - ANSWER (B) Process measure 15) Aim: Reduce the incidence of ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) by reducing the number of ventilator days in the intensive care unit (ICU) by 20 percent within five months. Percentage of patients with ventilator-associated pneumonia (A) Outcome measure (B) Process measure (C) Balancing measure - ANSWER (A) Outcome measure 16) Aim: Reduce the incidence of ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) by reducing the number of ventilator days in the intensive care unit (ICU) by 20 percent within five months. Readmission of ventilated patients to the ICU who then require mechanical ventilation (A) Outcome measure (B) Process measure (C) Balancing measure - ANSWER (C) Balancing measure 17) Aim: Reduce the average waiting time in the emergency department (ED) to 30 minutes by next August. Patient cycle times (e.g., time to registration, time from arrival to triage, time from triage to bed placement) and the percentage of time nurses arrive for their shifts early (A) Outcome measures (B) Process measures (C) Balancing measures - ANSWER (B) Process measures 18) Aim: Reduce the average waiting time in the emergency department (ED) to 30 minutes by next August. Average number of minutes in the ED per patient (A) Outcome measure (B) Process measure (C) Balancing measure - ANSWER (A) Outcome measure 19) Aim: Reduce the average waiting time in the emergency department (ED) to 30 minutes by next August. Percentage of staff reporting they're satisfied at work and total ED staffing costs (A) Outcome measures (B) Process measures (C) Balancing measures - ANSWER (C) Balancing measures 20) As a nurse manager of a medicine unit in an academic hospital, you're aware that your unit has a high rate of patient readmissions. In fact, 36 percent of the patients discharged from your unit are readmitted to the hospital within 30 days. After reviewing the literature, you become aware that this rate is quite high compared to national standards. Working with other members of your unit, you develop a plan to call patients on the phone within 48 hours of discharge, with the aim of cutting readmission rates to 18 percent. Which of the following is an example of a process measure that you may collect as part of this improvement effort? (A) The rate of patients being readmitted within 30 days (B) The reasons for readmission to the hospital (C) The percentage of patients receiving a call within 48 hours of discharge (D) The cost of the labor associated with the calls - ANSWER (C) The percentage of patients receiving a call within 48 hours of discharge 21) Which security method should be included in a defense-in-depth, when examined from the perspective of a content security policy? A Technological controls B Contractual enforcement of policies C Training programs D Strong access controls - ANSWER A 22) Which attack vector is associated with cloud infrastructure? A Seizure and examination of a physical disk B Licensing fees tied to the deployment of software based on a per-CPU licensing model C Data storage locations in multiple jurisdictions D Compromised API credentials - ANSWER D 23) Which risk is associated with malicious and accidental dangers to a cloud infrastructure? A Regulatory noncompliance B Natural disasters C Personnel threats D External attacks - ANSWER C 24) Which cloud-specific risk must be considered when moving infrastructure operations to the cloud? A Natural disasters B Lack of physical access C Denial of service D Regulatory violations - ANSWER B 25) Which risk is controlled by implementing a private cloud? A Eavesdropping B Unauthorized access C Denial-of-service (DoS) D Physical security - ANSWER D 26) Which countermeasure enhances redundancy for physical facilities hosting cloud equipment during the threat of a power outage? A Tier 2 network access providers B Radio frequency interference (RFI) blocking devices C Multiple and independent power circuits to all racks D Automated license plate readers (ALPR) at entry points - ANSWER C 27) Which countermeasure helps mitigate the risk of stolen credentials for cloud-based platforms? A Key management B Multifactor authentication C Data sanitization D Host lockdown - ANSWER B 28) Which control helps mitigate the risk of sensitive information leaving the cloud environment? A Web application firewall (WAF) B Disaster recovery plan (DRP) C Identity and access management (IAM) D Data loss prevention (DLP) - ANSWER D 29) Which countermeasure mitigates the risk of a rogue cloud administrator? A Multifactor authentication B Data encryption C Platform orchestration D Logging and monitoring - ANSWER D 30) Which consideration should be taken into account when reviewing a cloud service provider's risk of potential outage time? A The type of database B The amount of cloud service offerings C The unique history of the provider D The provider's support services - ANSWER C 31) Which cloud security control eliminates the risk of a virtualization guest escape from another tenant? A Dedicated hosting B Hardware hypervisor C File integrity monitor D Immutable virtual machines - ANSWER A 32) Which cloud security control is a countermeasure for man-in-the-middle attacks? A Backing up data offsite B Reviewing log data C Using block data storage D Encrypting data in transit - ANSWER D 33) Which data retention policy controls how long health insurance portability and accountability act (HIPAA) data can be archived? A Applicable regulation B Data classification C Enforcement D Maintenance - ANSWER A 34) Which disaster recovery (DR) site results in the quickest recovery in the event of a disaster? A Hot B Cold C Reserve D Passive - ANSWER A 35) Where should the location be for the final data backup repository in the event that the disaster recovery plan is enacted for the CSP of disaster recovery (DR) service? A Local storage B Cloud platform C Company headquarters D Tape drive - ANSWER B 36) Anything as a service - ANSWER Anything as a service, or "XaaS," refers to the growing diversity of services available over the internet via cloud computing as opposed to being provided locally, or on-premises. 37) Cloud app (cloud application) - ANSWER Short for cloud application, cloud app is the phrase used to describe a software application that is never installed on a local computer. Instead, it is accessed via the internet. 38) Apache Cloud Stack - ANSWER An open-source cloud computing and infrastructure as a service (IaaS) platform developed to help make creating, deploying, and managing cloud services easier by providing a complete "stack" of features and components for cloud environments. 39) Cloud Application Management for Platforms (CAMP) - ANSWER A specification designed to ease management of applications—including packaging and deployment—across public and private cloud computing platforms. 40) Cloud backup - ANSWER Cloud backup, or cloud computer backup, refers to backing up data to a remote, cloud-based server. As a form of cloud storage, cloud backup data is stored in and accessible from multiple distributed and connected resources that comprise a cloud. 41) Cloud backup service provider - ANSWER A third-party entity that manages and distributes remote, cloud-based data backup services and solutions to customers from a central data center. 42) Cloud backup solutions - ANSWER Enable enterprises or individuals to store their data and computer files on the internet using a storage service provider, rather than storing the data locally on a physical disk, such as a hard drive or tape backup. 43) Cloud computing - ANSWER A type of computing that relies on sharing computing resources in the delivery of computing services, rather than having local servers or personal devices to handle applications. 44) Cloud computing accounting software - ANSWER Accounting software that is hosted on remote servers. It provides accounting capabilities to businesses in a fashion similar to the software as a service (SaaS) business model. Data is sent into the cloud, where it is processed and returned to the user. 45) Cloud computing activity - ANSWER A specified pursuit or set of tasks. 46) Cloud computing reseller - ANSWER A company that purchases hosting services from a cloud server or cloud computing provider and then re-sells them to its own customers. 47) Cloud computing role - ANSWER A set of activities that serves a common purpose. 48) Cloud database - ANSWER A database accessible to clients from the cloud and delivered to users on demand via the internet. Also referred to as database as a service (DBaaS), cloud databases can use cloud computing to achieve optimized scaling, high availability, multitenancy, and effective resource allocation. 49) Cloud enablement - ANSWER The process of making available one or more of the following services and infrastructures to create a public cloud computing environment: cloud provider, client, and application. 50) Cloud management - ANSWER Software and technologies designed for operating and monitoring the applications, data, and services residing in the cloud. Cloud management tools help ensure a company's cloud computing-based resources are working optimally and properly interacting with users and other services. 51) Cloud migration - ANSWER The process of transitioning all or part of a company's data, applications, and services from on-site premises behind the firewall to the cloud, where the information can be provided over the internet on an on-demand basis. 52) Cloud operating system (OS) - ANSWER A software application responsible for orchestrating cloud computing services across multiple geographically separated data centers. 53) Cloud portability - ANSWER The ability to move applications and their associated data between one cloud provider and another—or between public and private cloud environments. 54) Cloud provider - ANSWER A service provider who offers customers storage or software solutions available via a public network, usually the internet. 55) Cloud provisioning - ANSWER The processes associated with delivering and orchestrating cloud computing services. It also includes facilities for interfacing with the cloud's applications and services as well as auditing and monitoring who accesses and utilizes the resources. 56) Cloud server hosting - ANSWER A type of hosting in which hosting services are made available to customers on demand via the internet. Rather than being provided by a single server or virtual server, cloud server hosting services are provided by multiple connected servers that comprise a cloud. 57) Cloud service product - ANSWER A cloud service, allied to the set of business terms under which the cloud service is offered. Business terms can include pricing, rating, and service levels. 58) Cloud storage - ANSWER The storage of data online in the cloud, wherein a company's data is stored in and accessible from multiple distributed and connected resources that comprise a cloud. 59) Cloud testing - ANSWER Load and performance testing conducted on the applications and services provided via cloud computing—particularly the capability to access these services—in order to ensure optimal performance and scalability under a wide variety of conditions. 60) Desktop as a service (DaaS) - ANSWER A form of virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) in which the VDI is outsourced and handled by a third party. Also called hosted desktop services, desktop as a service is frequently delivered as a cloud service along with the apps needed for use on the virtual desktop. 61) Enterprise application - ANSWER Applications—or software—that a business would use to assist the organization in solving enterprise problems. When the word enterprise is combined with application, it usually refers to a software platform that is too large and too complex for individual or small business use. 62) Enterprise cloud backup - ANSWER Enterprise-grade cloud backup solutions typically add essential features such as archiving and disaster recovery to cloud backup solutions. 63) Functional component - ANSWER A functional building block needed to engage in an activity, backed by an implementation. 64) Hybrid cloud storage - ANSWER A combination of public cloud storage and private cloud storage where some critical data resides in the enterprise's private cloud while other data is stored and accessible from a public cloud storage provider. 65) Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) - ANSWER Computer infrastructure, typically computer, storage and networking services, being delivered as a service. IaaS is popular in the data center where software and servers are purchased as a fully outsourced service and usually billed on usage and how much of the resource is used. 66) Mobile cloud storage - ANSWER A form of cloud storage that applies to storing an individual's mobile device data in the cloud and providing the individual with access to the data from anywhere. 67) Multitenant - ANSWER Describes multiple customers using the same public cloud. 68) Online backup - ANSWER Storage technology for backing up data from your hard drive to a remote server or computer using a network connection. Online backup technology leverages the internet and cloud computing to create an attractive off-site storage solution with little hardware requirements for any business of any size. 69) Peer cloud service - ANSWER A cloud service of one cloud service provider which is used as part of a cloud service of one or more other cloud service providers. 70) Peer cloud service provider - ANSWER A cloud service provider who provides one or more cloud services for use by one or more other cloud service providers as part of their cloud services. 71) Personal cloud storage - ANSWER A form of cloud storage that applies to storing an individual's data in the cloud and providing the individual with access to the data from anywhere. Personal cloud storage also often enables syncing and sharing stored data across multiple devices such as mobile phones and tablet computers. 72) Private cloud - ANSWER The phrase used to describe a cloud computing platform that is implemented within the corporate firewall, under the control of the IT department. A private cloud is designed to offer the same features and benefits of cloud systems, but removes a number of objections to the cloud computing model, including control over enterprise and customer data, worries about security, and issues connected to regulatory compliance.