ESTUDYR
AGACNP CERTIFICATION EXAM 2025
MULTICHOICE ANSWERED EXAM QUESTIONS
WITH DETAILED RATIONALES
At what grade level should patient health literature typically be written?
A. 2nd–4th grade
B. 4th–6th grade
C. 6th–8th grade (Correct)
D. 10th–12th grade
Rationale: Health materials are best at 6th–8th grade to maximize comprehension across
populations.
Which organization lays out accreditation guidelines for hospitals?
A. CDC
B. OSHA
C. The Joint Commission (Correct)
D. NIH
Rationale: The Joint Commission establishes accreditation standards for healthcare
organizations.
Quality improvement (QI) is the management process of:
A. Hiring and firing staff
B. Financial auditing only
C. Monitoring, evaluating, continuously reviewing and improving healthcare quality and
safety (Correct)
D. Marketing healthcare services
Rationale: QI focuses on ongoing evaluation and improvement of care and system safety.
A Richmond Agitation-Sedation Scale (RASS) score of 0 indicates the patient is:
A. Deeply sedated
B. Alert and calm (Correct)
C. Agitated and combative
D. Lethargic but arousable
Rationale: RASS 0 = alert and calm.
A RASS score of +4 corresponds to a patient who is:
A. Restless
,ESTUDYR
B. Agitated
C. Combative (Correct)
D. Drowsy
Rationale: Higher positive RASS scores indicate increasing agitation/combative behavior.
Which tool is used to assess pain in intubated patients?
A. VAS
B. Numeric Rating Scale
C. CPOT (Critical-Care Pain Observation Tool) (Correct)
D. Wong-Baker Faces
Rationale: CPOT evaluates behavioral indicators of pain in nonverbal/intubated ICU patients.
On the MMSE (Mini-Mental State Examination), a score indicating cognitive dysfunction is:
A. >28
B. 25–27
C. <24 (Correct)
D. 24–26
Rationale: An MMSE score below 24 suggests cognitive impairment.
Which areas do nurse informaticists work in?
A. Banking only
B. Practice, Education, Government, Industry (Correct)
C. Culinary arts only
D. Construction
Rationale: Nursing informatics spans clinical practice, education, policy, and
industry/technology.
What is the term for comparing a healthcare organization’s services to top national
performers?
A. Auditing
B. Benchmarking (Correct)
C. Accreditation
D. Certification
Rationale: Benchmarking measures performance against leading organizations.
Systematic peer assessment of RN practice measured against professional standards is
called:
A. Audit
B. Peer review (Correct)
C. Benchmarking
,ESTUDYR
D. Accreditation
Rationale: Peer review evaluates nursing practice against established standards.
A written statement of a patient’s intent regarding future medical treatment is called:
A. DNR only
B. Advance directive (Correct)
C. Power of attorney only
D. Consent form
Rationale: Advance directives document patient preferences for future care.
Which Act requires hospitals to advise patients of their right to execute an advance
directive?
A. HIPAA
B. EMTALA
C. Patient Self-Determination Act of 1990 (Correct)
D. Affordable Care Act
Rationale: PSDA mandates informing patients about advance directives at admission.
A document that specifies life-prolonging measures a patient wants/does not want is a:
A. Power of attorney
B. Living will (Correct)
C. DNR only
D. Consent for surgery
Rationale: A living will details preferences about life-sustaining treatments.
Which law protects health insurance coverage for workers when they change or lose jobs?
A. HIPAA Title II
B. COBRA (Correct)
C. ADA
D. Medicare Part A
Rationale: COBRA allows temporary continuation of employer health coverage.
When initiating change in healthcare, you should begin at the most:
A. National level
B. Local level (Correct)
C. Global level
D. Federal level
Rationale: Local changes are practical starting points for implementation and testing.
In treatment priorities, which are always addressed before psychosocial conditions?
A. Social needs
, ESTUDYR
B. Medical conditions (Correct)
C. Spiritual needs
D. Financial needs
Rationale: Immediate medical needs take precedence over psychosocial issues.
The strongest method to evaluate patient teaching is:
A. Verbal questioning only
B. Written test only
C. Return demonstration (Correct)
D. Observation without practice
Rationale: Return demonstration confirms skill acquisition and competency.
Le Fort I fracture is described as a:
A. Floating mandible
B. Floating palate (Correct)
C. Floating maxilla
D. Floating face
Rationale: Le Fort I involves separation of the palate (floating palate).
Le Fort II fracture is a:
A. Floating palate
B. Floating maxilla (Correct)
C. Floating face
D. Mandibular fracture
Rationale: Le Fort II is a pyramidal fracture involving maxilla.
Le Fort III fracture is described as:
A. Floating palate
B. Floating maxilla
C. Floating face (Correct)
D. Zygomatic fracture
Rationale: Le Fort III is craniofacial disjunction—entire face is separated ("floating face").
Primary goals of Healthy People 2020 include:
A. Reduce taxes and immigration
B. Increase quality and years of life; eliminate health disparities (Correct)
C. Expand hospital size only
D. Restrict vaccinations
Rationale: HP2020 aims to improve length/quality of life and eliminate disparities.
AGACNP CERTIFICATION EXAM 2025
MULTICHOICE ANSWERED EXAM QUESTIONS
WITH DETAILED RATIONALES
At what grade level should patient health literature typically be written?
A. 2nd–4th grade
B. 4th–6th grade
C. 6th–8th grade (Correct)
D. 10th–12th grade
Rationale: Health materials are best at 6th–8th grade to maximize comprehension across
populations.
Which organization lays out accreditation guidelines for hospitals?
A. CDC
B. OSHA
C. The Joint Commission (Correct)
D. NIH
Rationale: The Joint Commission establishes accreditation standards for healthcare
organizations.
Quality improvement (QI) is the management process of:
A. Hiring and firing staff
B. Financial auditing only
C. Monitoring, evaluating, continuously reviewing and improving healthcare quality and
safety (Correct)
D. Marketing healthcare services
Rationale: QI focuses on ongoing evaluation and improvement of care and system safety.
A Richmond Agitation-Sedation Scale (RASS) score of 0 indicates the patient is:
A. Deeply sedated
B. Alert and calm (Correct)
C. Agitated and combative
D. Lethargic but arousable
Rationale: RASS 0 = alert and calm.
A RASS score of +4 corresponds to a patient who is:
A. Restless
,ESTUDYR
B. Agitated
C. Combative (Correct)
D. Drowsy
Rationale: Higher positive RASS scores indicate increasing agitation/combative behavior.
Which tool is used to assess pain in intubated patients?
A. VAS
B. Numeric Rating Scale
C. CPOT (Critical-Care Pain Observation Tool) (Correct)
D. Wong-Baker Faces
Rationale: CPOT evaluates behavioral indicators of pain in nonverbal/intubated ICU patients.
On the MMSE (Mini-Mental State Examination), a score indicating cognitive dysfunction is:
A. >28
B. 25–27
C. <24 (Correct)
D. 24–26
Rationale: An MMSE score below 24 suggests cognitive impairment.
Which areas do nurse informaticists work in?
A. Banking only
B. Practice, Education, Government, Industry (Correct)
C. Culinary arts only
D. Construction
Rationale: Nursing informatics spans clinical practice, education, policy, and
industry/technology.
What is the term for comparing a healthcare organization’s services to top national
performers?
A. Auditing
B. Benchmarking (Correct)
C. Accreditation
D. Certification
Rationale: Benchmarking measures performance against leading organizations.
Systematic peer assessment of RN practice measured against professional standards is
called:
A. Audit
B. Peer review (Correct)
C. Benchmarking
,ESTUDYR
D. Accreditation
Rationale: Peer review evaluates nursing practice against established standards.
A written statement of a patient’s intent regarding future medical treatment is called:
A. DNR only
B. Advance directive (Correct)
C. Power of attorney only
D. Consent form
Rationale: Advance directives document patient preferences for future care.
Which Act requires hospitals to advise patients of their right to execute an advance
directive?
A. HIPAA
B. EMTALA
C. Patient Self-Determination Act of 1990 (Correct)
D. Affordable Care Act
Rationale: PSDA mandates informing patients about advance directives at admission.
A document that specifies life-prolonging measures a patient wants/does not want is a:
A. Power of attorney
B. Living will (Correct)
C. DNR only
D. Consent for surgery
Rationale: A living will details preferences about life-sustaining treatments.
Which law protects health insurance coverage for workers when they change or lose jobs?
A. HIPAA Title II
B. COBRA (Correct)
C. ADA
D. Medicare Part A
Rationale: COBRA allows temporary continuation of employer health coverage.
When initiating change in healthcare, you should begin at the most:
A. National level
B. Local level (Correct)
C. Global level
D. Federal level
Rationale: Local changes are practical starting points for implementation and testing.
In treatment priorities, which are always addressed before psychosocial conditions?
A. Social needs
, ESTUDYR
B. Medical conditions (Correct)
C. Spiritual needs
D. Financial needs
Rationale: Immediate medical needs take precedence over psychosocial issues.
The strongest method to evaluate patient teaching is:
A. Verbal questioning only
B. Written test only
C. Return demonstration (Correct)
D. Observation without practice
Rationale: Return demonstration confirms skill acquisition and competency.
Le Fort I fracture is described as a:
A. Floating mandible
B. Floating palate (Correct)
C. Floating maxilla
D. Floating face
Rationale: Le Fort I involves separation of the palate (floating palate).
Le Fort II fracture is a:
A. Floating palate
B. Floating maxilla (Correct)
C. Floating face
D. Mandibular fracture
Rationale: Le Fort II is a pyramidal fracture involving maxilla.
Le Fort III fracture is described as:
A. Floating palate
B. Floating maxilla
C. Floating face (Correct)
D. Zygomatic fracture
Rationale: Le Fort III is craniofacial disjunction—entire face is separated ("floating face").
Primary goals of Healthy People 2020 include:
A. Reduce taxes and immigration
B. Increase quality and years of life; eliminate health disparities (Correct)
C. Expand hospital size only
D. Restrict vaccinations
Rationale: HP2020 aims to improve length/quality of life and eliminate disparities.
