AAFP EXAM QUESTIONS WITH 100%
CORRECT ANSWERS | LATEST
VERSION 2025/2026.
A 52-year-old male presents with moderate symptoms of prostatism. A prostate examination is
normal. His post-void residual volume is 90 mL. His PSA level is 0.75 ng/mL (N 0.0-4.0). He says
his nocturia has become troublesome and you decide to initiate therapy.
This patient does NOT meet the criteria for use of which one of the following? -
ANS Finasteride
(use if there is evidence of prostatic enlargement or a PSA level >1.5 ng/mL),
A factory worker sustains a forced flexion injury of the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint,
resulting in a small bone fragment at the dorsal surface of the proximal distal phalanx (mallet
fracture). Which one of the following is the most appropriate management strategy?
(check one)
A. Buddy taping and early range of motion
B. Splinting the DIP joint in extension
C. Splinting the DIP joint in flexion
D. Referral for surgical repair - ANS B
The recommended treatment for a mallet fracture is splinting the distal interphalangeal (DIP)
joint in
1 @COPYRIGHT 2025/2026 ALLRIGHTS RESERVED
,extension (SOR B). The usual duration of splinting is 8 weeks. It is important that extension be
maintained
throughout the duration of treatment because flexion can affect healing and prolong the time
needed for
treatment. If the finger fracture involves >30% of the intra-articular surface, referral to a hand
or
orthopedic surgeon can be considered. However, conservative therapy appears to have
outcomes similar
to those of surgical treatment and therefore is generally preferred.
Which one of the following drugs is NOT effective for maintenance therapy in bipolar
disorders?
(check one)
A. Haloperidol
B. Lamotrigine (Lamictal)
C. Lithium
D. Quetiapine (Seroquel)
E. Valproate sodium (Depacon) - ANS A
Lithium, valproate, lamotrigine, and some antipsychotics (including quetiapine) are effective
treatments
for both acute depression and maintenance therapy of bipolar disorders. Haloperidol is an
effective
treatment for acute mania in bipolar disorders, but not for maintenance therapy or acute
depression.
A 30-year-old ill-appearing male presents with right hand and arm pain and a rapidly expanding
area of redness. On examination he has a temperature of 38.9°C (102.0°F), a pulse rate of 120
beats/min, and a blood pressure of 116/74 mm Hg. He also has erythema from the dorsal hand
to the elbow, violaceous bullae on the dorsal hand and wrist, and severe pain with dorsiflexion
of the wrist or fingers.
2 @COPYRIGHT 2025/2026 ALLRIGHTS RESERVED
,Which one of the following is the most appropriate initial step in the management of this
patient?
(check one)
A. Oral dicloxacillin and outpatient follow-up within the next 24 hours
B. Intravenous metronidazole
C. Consultation with an infectious disease specialist for antibiotic managemen
D. Immediate surgical consultation for operative debridement
E. Incision and drainage with wound cultures in the emergency department - ANS D
This patient has physical findings consistent with a necrotizing skin and soft-tissue infection, or
necrotizing
fasciitis. Severe pain and skin changes outside the realm of cellulitis, including bullae and
deeper
discoloration, are strong indications of necrotizing fasciitis. Antimicrobial therapy is essential
but is not
sufficient by itself; aggressive surgical debridement within 12 hours reduces the risk of
amputation and
death.
A mother brings her 2-year-old daughter to your office because the child is not using her left
arm. Earlier in the day the mother left the toddler under the supervision of her 12-year-old
sister
while she went to the store. When she returned the toddler was playing with toys using only
her
right arm, and was holding the left arm slightly pronated, flexed, and close to her body. The
older daughter was unaware of any injury to the girl's arm, and the child does not seem
distressed or traumatized.
Physical examination of the child's clavicle, shoulder, wrist, and hand do not elicit any signs of
3 @COPYRIGHT 2025/2026 ALLRIGHTS RESERVED
, pain or change in function. She does seem to have some tenderness near the lateral elbow and
resists your attempts to examine that area. There is no ecchymosis, swelling, or deformity of
the
elbow.
Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point?
(check one)
A. Plain radiographs of the affected elbow
B. U - ANS C
A mother brings her 2-year-old daughter to your office because the child is not using her left
arm. Earlier in the day the mother left the toddler under the supervision of her 12-year-old
sister
while she went to the store. When she returned the toddler was playing with toys using only
her
right arm, and was holding the left arm slightly pronated, flexed, and close to her body. The
older daughter was unaware of any injury to the girl's arm, and the child does not seem
distressed or traumatized.
Physical examination of the child's clavicle, shoulder, wrist, and hand do not elicit any signs of
pain or change in function. She does seem to have some tenderness near the lateral elbow and
resists your attempts to examine that area. There is no ecchymosis, swelling, or deformity of
the
elbow.
Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point?
(check one)
A. Plain radiographs of the affected elbow
4 @COPYRIGHT 2025/2026 ALLRIGHTS RESERVED
CORRECT ANSWERS | LATEST
VERSION 2025/2026.
A 52-year-old male presents with moderate symptoms of prostatism. A prostate examination is
normal. His post-void residual volume is 90 mL. His PSA level is 0.75 ng/mL (N 0.0-4.0). He says
his nocturia has become troublesome and you decide to initiate therapy.
This patient does NOT meet the criteria for use of which one of the following? -
ANS Finasteride
(use if there is evidence of prostatic enlargement or a PSA level >1.5 ng/mL),
A factory worker sustains a forced flexion injury of the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint,
resulting in a small bone fragment at the dorsal surface of the proximal distal phalanx (mallet
fracture). Which one of the following is the most appropriate management strategy?
(check one)
A. Buddy taping and early range of motion
B. Splinting the DIP joint in extension
C. Splinting the DIP joint in flexion
D. Referral for surgical repair - ANS B
The recommended treatment for a mallet fracture is splinting the distal interphalangeal (DIP)
joint in
1 @COPYRIGHT 2025/2026 ALLRIGHTS RESERVED
,extension (SOR B). The usual duration of splinting is 8 weeks. It is important that extension be
maintained
throughout the duration of treatment because flexion can affect healing and prolong the time
needed for
treatment. If the finger fracture involves >30% of the intra-articular surface, referral to a hand
or
orthopedic surgeon can be considered. However, conservative therapy appears to have
outcomes similar
to those of surgical treatment and therefore is generally preferred.
Which one of the following drugs is NOT effective for maintenance therapy in bipolar
disorders?
(check one)
A. Haloperidol
B. Lamotrigine (Lamictal)
C. Lithium
D. Quetiapine (Seroquel)
E. Valproate sodium (Depacon) - ANS A
Lithium, valproate, lamotrigine, and some antipsychotics (including quetiapine) are effective
treatments
for both acute depression and maintenance therapy of bipolar disorders. Haloperidol is an
effective
treatment for acute mania in bipolar disorders, but not for maintenance therapy or acute
depression.
A 30-year-old ill-appearing male presents with right hand and arm pain and a rapidly expanding
area of redness. On examination he has a temperature of 38.9°C (102.0°F), a pulse rate of 120
beats/min, and a blood pressure of 116/74 mm Hg. He also has erythema from the dorsal hand
to the elbow, violaceous bullae on the dorsal hand and wrist, and severe pain with dorsiflexion
of the wrist or fingers.
2 @COPYRIGHT 2025/2026 ALLRIGHTS RESERVED
,Which one of the following is the most appropriate initial step in the management of this
patient?
(check one)
A. Oral dicloxacillin and outpatient follow-up within the next 24 hours
B. Intravenous metronidazole
C. Consultation with an infectious disease specialist for antibiotic managemen
D. Immediate surgical consultation for operative debridement
E. Incision and drainage with wound cultures in the emergency department - ANS D
This patient has physical findings consistent with a necrotizing skin and soft-tissue infection, or
necrotizing
fasciitis. Severe pain and skin changes outside the realm of cellulitis, including bullae and
deeper
discoloration, are strong indications of necrotizing fasciitis. Antimicrobial therapy is essential
but is not
sufficient by itself; aggressive surgical debridement within 12 hours reduces the risk of
amputation and
death.
A mother brings her 2-year-old daughter to your office because the child is not using her left
arm. Earlier in the day the mother left the toddler under the supervision of her 12-year-old
sister
while she went to the store. When she returned the toddler was playing with toys using only
her
right arm, and was holding the left arm slightly pronated, flexed, and close to her body. The
older daughter was unaware of any injury to the girl's arm, and the child does not seem
distressed or traumatized.
Physical examination of the child's clavicle, shoulder, wrist, and hand do not elicit any signs of
3 @COPYRIGHT 2025/2026 ALLRIGHTS RESERVED
, pain or change in function. She does seem to have some tenderness near the lateral elbow and
resists your attempts to examine that area. There is no ecchymosis, swelling, or deformity of
the
elbow.
Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point?
(check one)
A. Plain radiographs of the affected elbow
B. U - ANS C
A mother brings her 2-year-old daughter to your office because the child is not using her left
arm. Earlier in the day the mother left the toddler under the supervision of her 12-year-old
sister
while she went to the store. When she returned the toddler was playing with toys using only
her
right arm, and was holding the left arm slightly pronated, flexed, and close to her body. The
older daughter was unaware of any injury to the girl's arm, and the child does not seem
distressed or traumatized.
Physical examination of the child's clavicle, shoulder, wrist, and hand do not elicit any signs of
pain or change in function. She does seem to have some tenderness near the lateral elbow and
resists your attempts to examine that area. There is no ecchymosis, swelling, or deformity of
the
elbow.
Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point?
(check one)
A. Plain radiographs of the affected elbow
4 @COPYRIGHT 2025/2026 ALLRIGHTS RESERVED
