D115 - OA readiness
1. What is the most common indication for genetic counseling?
A) maternal age
B) drug exposure during the first trimester?
C) Increased maternal alpha-fetoprotein
D) history of previous still birth: A) maternal age
The largest group of women who benefit from genetic counseling are those over
the age of 35
2. The FNP schedules a 38-year-old primigravida (first time pregnancy) for an
amniocentesis at 16 weeks gestation. The FNP would explain that the purpose
of this procedure is to:
A) Assess for the possibility of twins
B) Deterime the biliruben level
C) Perform genetic studies
D) Assess L/S ratio: C) Perform genetic studies
This womans age puts her at risk for Down Syndrome
3. In the most commonly seen form of Turner Syndrome, how is the X
chromosome affected?
A) Each cell has only one X chromosome?
B) Some cells have two X chromsomes, while the other cells have only one.
C) Each cell has two X chromsomes, but part of the chromosome is missing.
D) Each cell has an extra X chromosome: A) Each cell has only one X
chromsome 45% of persons with Turner Syndrome have monosomy X meaning
there is only one copy of the X chromosome in each cell.
4. The FNP is assessing a newborn who is demonstrating a high-pitched cry,
microcephaly, hypertelorism, hypotonia, and a low birth weight. The FNP
would suspect which of the following genetic conditions?
A) Down Syndrome
B) Cri du chat
C) Charge syndrome
D) Duncan disease: B) Cri du chat
The clinical symptoms of cri du chat syndrome usually include a high-pitched cat-
like cry, mental retardation, delayed development, distinctive facial features, small
head size (microcephaly), widely-spaced eyes (hypertelorism), low birth weight and
weak muscle tone (hypotonia) in infancy.
,5. When explaining the types of adaptive immunity, the FNP student is aware
that:
A) Adaptive immunity is a cell-mediated immune response which is
B) Adaptive immunity is the level of immunity that all persons are born with.
C) Adaptive immunity occurs when antibodies are passed from the mother to
the fetus.
D) Adaptive immunity occurs through immunization.: A) Adaptive immunity is
a cell-mediated immune response which is carried out by T cells and B cells.
There are two types of adaptive immunity responses: the cell-mediated immune
response, which is carried out by T cells, and the humoral immune response,
which is controlled by activated B cells and antibodies.
6. A woman has sustained a traumatic brain injury. She is able to follow simple
commands and can manipulate objects. Which term describes this state?
A) Coma
B) Persistent vegetative state
C) Minimally conscious
D) Locked-in syndrome: C) Minimally conscious
When responses to the environment are seen, the patient is said to be in a
minimally conscious state
7. Age and the admission of the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) are important
diagnostic factors in TBI. Which GCS score describes a severe TBI? A)
13-15
B) 12-13
C) 9-12
D) 3-8: D) 3-8
The GCS is scored between 3 and 15, 3 being the worst and 15 the best.
8. Which term describes recurrent, intrusive thoughts or impulses?
A) Hallucinations
B) Compulsions
C) Obsessions
Obsessions are recurrent and persistent thoughts, impulses, or images that
cause distressing emotions such as anxiety or disgust.
D) Delusions: C) Obsessions
Obsessions are recurrent and persistent thoughts, impulses, or images that cause
distressing emotions such as anxiety or disgust.
, D115 - OA readiness
9. During an intake interview with a 26-year-old man diagnosed with
generalized anxiety disorder, the FNP might observe what type of behavior?
A) An inflated sense of self
B) Constant relation to future events
C) Inability to concentrate and irritability when questioned
Impaired concentration and irritability are major characteristics of GAD.
D) Nervousness and fear of the FNP during the interview: C) Inability to
concentrate and irritability when questioned
Impaired concentration and irritability are major characteristics of GAD.
10. The FNP would expect which symptoms in a patient with a diagnosis of
schizophrenia?
A) High energy with varying sleep patterns and non stop conversation.
B) Extreme and frequent mood swings with hyperactivity and difficulty con-
centrating.
C) Paranoia, delusions, hallucinations, and diminished self-care.
D) Anti-social behavior, manipulative behavior, charisma, and ability to lie
convincingly.: C) Paranoia, delusions, hallucinations, and diminished self-care.
The characteristics of schizophrenia are paranoia, delusions, tangential
thoughts, suspiciousness, disorganized behavior, and hallucinations.
11. The FNP is seeing a 10 year old child with complaints of otalgia and
muffled hearing. The mother states the child recently recovered from an upper
respiratory infection. The FNP suspects that this child has:
A) Acute otitis media
B) Acute otitis externa
C) Cholesteatoma
D) Chronic otitis media: A) Acute otitis media
The classic presentation of otitis media is otalgia, muffled hearing, popping
sensation, and a recent history of a cold or flare up of allergic rhinitis.
12. The FNP understands that a potential complication of tonsillar infections,
which is characterized by severe sore throat, difficulty swallowing,
odynophagia, trismus, and a "hot potato" voice; accompanied by fever, chills
and malaise is indicative of:
A) Retropharyngeal abscess
B) Epiglotitis
, C) Peritonsillar cellulitis
D) Peritonsillar abscess: D) Peritonsillar abscess
Peritonsillar abscess is characterized by severe sore throat, pain or difficulty
swallowing, jaw muscle spasms, and a hot potato voice.
13. A young adult female patient presents to the clinic with complaints of
nervousness, tremulousness, palpitations, heat intolerance, fatigue, weight
loss, and polyphagia. After a complete history and physical, along with
thyroid function tests, the FNP makes the diagnosis of hyperthyroidism,
recognizing that the most common cause of this condition is:
A) Thyroid cancer
B) Graves' disease
C) Pituitary adenoma
D) Postpartum thyroiditis: B) Graves' disease
Graves' disease, an autoimmune condition also known as "diffuse toxic goiter" is
the most common cause of hyperthyroidism in this age group.
14. During an evaluation of a patient with prediabetes, the FNP identifies
which finding in the patient's objective data that is associated with the
increasing insulin resistance?
A) Triglycerides > 150mg/dL
B) HDL > 40 mg/dL in men and >50 mg/dL in women
C) BP < 130/85 mm Hg
D) FBS < 110 mg/dL: A) Triglycerides > 150mg/dL
Improper use of glucose increases the release of free fatty acids which elevates
triglycerides.
15. When prescribing a meal plan for the patient with type 2 diabetes, the
FNP tells the patient that the macronutrient with the most influence on the
postprandial glucose level is:
A) Fiber
B) Fat
C) Protein
D) Carbohydrate: D) Carbohydrate
Carbohydrate is a macronutrient with the greatest impact on the postprandial
glucose levels.
16. Which of the following characteristics applies to type 1 diabetes mellitus?
A) Significant hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis result from a lack of insulin.
1. What is the most common indication for genetic counseling?
A) maternal age
B) drug exposure during the first trimester?
C) Increased maternal alpha-fetoprotein
D) history of previous still birth: A) maternal age
The largest group of women who benefit from genetic counseling are those over
the age of 35
2. The FNP schedules a 38-year-old primigravida (first time pregnancy) for an
amniocentesis at 16 weeks gestation. The FNP would explain that the purpose
of this procedure is to:
A) Assess for the possibility of twins
B) Deterime the biliruben level
C) Perform genetic studies
D) Assess L/S ratio: C) Perform genetic studies
This womans age puts her at risk for Down Syndrome
3. In the most commonly seen form of Turner Syndrome, how is the X
chromosome affected?
A) Each cell has only one X chromosome?
B) Some cells have two X chromsomes, while the other cells have only one.
C) Each cell has two X chromsomes, but part of the chromosome is missing.
D) Each cell has an extra X chromosome: A) Each cell has only one X
chromsome 45% of persons with Turner Syndrome have monosomy X meaning
there is only one copy of the X chromosome in each cell.
4. The FNP is assessing a newborn who is demonstrating a high-pitched cry,
microcephaly, hypertelorism, hypotonia, and a low birth weight. The FNP
would suspect which of the following genetic conditions?
A) Down Syndrome
B) Cri du chat
C) Charge syndrome
D) Duncan disease: B) Cri du chat
The clinical symptoms of cri du chat syndrome usually include a high-pitched cat-
like cry, mental retardation, delayed development, distinctive facial features, small
head size (microcephaly), widely-spaced eyes (hypertelorism), low birth weight and
weak muscle tone (hypotonia) in infancy.
,5. When explaining the types of adaptive immunity, the FNP student is aware
that:
A) Adaptive immunity is a cell-mediated immune response which is
B) Adaptive immunity is the level of immunity that all persons are born with.
C) Adaptive immunity occurs when antibodies are passed from the mother to
the fetus.
D) Adaptive immunity occurs through immunization.: A) Adaptive immunity is
a cell-mediated immune response which is carried out by T cells and B cells.
There are two types of adaptive immunity responses: the cell-mediated immune
response, which is carried out by T cells, and the humoral immune response,
which is controlled by activated B cells and antibodies.
6. A woman has sustained a traumatic brain injury. She is able to follow simple
commands and can manipulate objects. Which term describes this state?
A) Coma
B) Persistent vegetative state
C) Minimally conscious
D) Locked-in syndrome: C) Minimally conscious
When responses to the environment are seen, the patient is said to be in a
minimally conscious state
7. Age and the admission of the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) are important
diagnostic factors in TBI. Which GCS score describes a severe TBI? A)
13-15
B) 12-13
C) 9-12
D) 3-8: D) 3-8
The GCS is scored between 3 and 15, 3 being the worst and 15 the best.
8. Which term describes recurrent, intrusive thoughts or impulses?
A) Hallucinations
B) Compulsions
C) Obsessions
Obsessions are recurrent and persistent thoughts, impulses, or images that
cause distressing emotions such as anxiety or disgust.
D) Delusions: C) Obsessions
Obsessions are recurrent and persistent thoughts, impulses, or images that cause
distressing emotions such as anxiety or disgust.
, D115 - OA readiness
9. During an intake interview with a 26-year-old man diagnosed with
generalized anxiety disorder, the FNP might observe what type of behavior?
A) An inflated sense of self
B) Constant relation to future events
C) Inability to concentrate and irritability when questioned
Impaired concentration and irritability are major characteristics of GAD.
D) Nervousness and fear of the FNP during the interview: C) Inability to
concentrate and irritability when questioned
Impaired concentration and irritability are major characteristics of GAD.
10. The FNP would expect which symptoms in a patient with a diagnosis of
schizophrenia?
A) High energy with varying sleep patterns and non stop conversation.
B) Extreme and frequent mood swings with hyperactivity and difficulty con-
centrating.
C) Paranoia, delusions, hallucinations, and diminished self-care.
D) Anti-social behavior, manipulative behavior, charisma, and ability to lie
convincingly.: C) Paranoia, delusions, hallucinations, and diminished self-care.
The characteristics of schizophrenia are paranoia, delusions, tangential
thoughts, suspiciousness, disorganized behavior, and hallucinations.
11. The FNP is seeing a 10 year old child with complaints of otalgia and
muffled hearing. The mother states the child recently recovered from an upper
respiratory infection. The FNP suspects that this child has:
A) Acute otitis media
B) Acute otitis externa
C) Cholesteatoma
D) Chronic otitis media: A) Acute otitis media
The classic presentation of otitis media is otalgia, muffled hearing, popping
sensation, and a recent history of a cold or flare up of allergic rhinitis.
12. The FNP understands that a potential complication of tonsillar infections,
which is characterized by severe sore throat, difficulty swallowing,
odynophagia, trismus, and a "hot potato" voice; accompanied by fever, chills
and malaise is indicative of:
A) Retropharyngeal abscess
B) Epiglotitis
, C) Peritonsillar cellulitis
D) Peritonsillar abscess: D) Peritonsillar abscess
Peritonsillar abscess is characterized by severe sore throat, pain or difficulty
swallowing, jaw muscle spasms, and a hot potato voice.
13. A young adult female patient presents to the clinic with complaints of
nervousness, tremulousness, palpitations, heat intolerance, fatigue, weight
loss, and polyphagia. After a complete history and physical, along with
thyroid function tests, the FNP makes the diagnosis of hyperthyroidism,
recognizing that the most common cause of this condition is:
A) Thyroid cancer
B) Graves' disease
C) Pituitary adenoma
D) Postpartum thyroiditis: B) Graves' disease
Graves' disease, an autoimmune condition also known as "diffuse toxic goiter" is
the most common cause of hyperthyroidism in this age group.
14. During an evaluation of a patient with prediabetes, the FNP identifies
which finding in the patient's objective data that is associated with the
increasing insulin resistance?
A) Triglycerides > 150mg/dL
B) HDL > 40 mg/dL in men and >50 mg/dL in women
C) BP < 130/85 mm Hg
D) FBS < 110 mg/dL: A) Triglycerides > 150mg/dL
Improper use of glucose increases the release of free fatty acids which elevates
triglycerides.
15. When prescribing a meal plan for the patient with type 2 diabetes, the
FNP tells the patient that the macronutrient with the most influence on the
postprandial glucose level is:
A) Fiber
B) Fat
C) Protein
D) Carbohydrate: D) Carbohydrate
Carbohydrate is a macronutrient with the greatest impact on the postprandial
glucose levels.
16. Which of the following characteristics applies to type 1 diabetes mellitus?
A) Significant hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis result from a lack of insulin.
