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WGU D116 PHARMACOLOGY REVIEW EXAM PART 1 WITH QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT ANSWERS|| LATEST AND COMPLETE VERSION WITH EXPERT VERIFIED SOLUTIONS|| ASSURED PASS

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WGU D116 PHARMACOLOGY REVIEW EXAM PART 1 WITH QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT ANSWERS|| LATEST AND COMPLETE VERSION WITH EXPERT VERIFIED SOLUTIONS|| ASSURED PASS

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WGU D116 PHARMACOLOGY
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WGU D116 PHARMACOLOGY

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1|Page



WGU D116 PHARMACOLOGY REVIEW EXAM
PART 1 WITH QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT
ANSWERS|| LATEST AND COMPLETE VERSION
2025-2026 WITH EXPERT VERIFIED SOLUTIONS||
ASSURED PASS
A patient diagnosed with bipolar disorder who is in a mental health clinic is
discussing the possibility of beginning lithium with an advanced practice registered
nurse (APRN). The patient expresses understanding and wishes to proceed with
treatment. The APRN explains to the patient that this medication requires specific
lab monitoring and wants to draw baseline labs. The patient asks why the test is
needed.
Which explanation should the APRN provide to this patient?
A baseline blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine (CREA) level needs to be
drawn to assess kidney function prior to treatment.
This drug can cause decreased renal function, and a baseline should be drawn for
future comparison.




An advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) is reviewing the medications that
will be commonly experienced with a new nurse to determine whether the drugs
are safe for the patients. The new nurse is given a scenario where a patient is being
prescribed sildenafil 25 mg po prn, a prototype drug for erectile dysfunction.
Which patient may take this drug safely?
YES A 54-year-male with a medical history of hypertension, mild eczema, and
previous history of a urolithiasis where all is well controlled and there are no
current complications

,2|Page


A patient presents to an emergency room complaining of palpitations and irregular
heartbeat. The advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) places the patient on a
cardiac monitor and observes atrial fibrillation. The APRN orders dofetilide.
How should the APRN recommend this medication be taken?
YES With food or an empty stomach




A 70-year-old male calls a clinic complaining of chest pain that started after having
sexual activity. He took sildenafil 50 mg about eight hours ago. He has
nitroglycerin 0.3 mg on hand.
How should the advanced practice registered nurse respond?
Do not take the nitroglycerin and call 911


Taking the medications together can cause a serious drop in blood pressure leading
to cardiovascular collapse.




A 30-year-old patient presents to a primary care clinic with a history of anxiety.
The advanced practice registered nurse reviews the mechanism of action by which
many neuropharmacological agents act and decides to prescribe citalopram.
What is the mechanism of action of this medication?
YES Influences receptor activity on target cells


Correct! This medication influences the activity in the receptors, and it targets
cells.

,3|Page


A patient is admitted with a diagnosis of Huntington disease. On admission, the
patient exhibits uncontrolled twitching, difficulty walking, trouble swallowing,
confusion, and memory loss. The advanced practice registered nurse (APRN)
prescribes baclofen.
What is the mechanism of action of this medication?
NO Modulates the effects of glutamate at NMDA receptors
YES Inhibits neurotransmitter GABA
NO Halts the breakdown of acetylcholine by acetylcholinesterase
Alters the synthesis and release of norepinephrine, serotonin, and dopamine
Incorrect. Cholinesterase inhibitors prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine by
acetylcholinesterase. They are used in patients with Alzheimer's.
Correct! Huntington's disease involves a deficiency of the neurotransmitters
acetylcholine and y-aminobutyric acid in the basal ganglia and extrapyramidal
system.




A 21-year-old patient accompanied by a parent comes to a clinic for an emergency
visit with an advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) following a seizure. Upon
interviewing the patient and the parent, the APRN determines that the seizure is
classified by marked impairment of consciousness and is followed by a period of
central nervous system (CNS) depression.
Which type of seizure is this patient experiencing?
Atonic
NO Myoclonic
YES Tonic-clonic
Absence
Incorrect. Myoclonic seizures consist of a sudden muscle contraction that lasts for
just one second.

, 4|Page


Correct! A tonic-clonic seizure is a type of seizure that is also called a convulsion.
This type of seizure can include muscle stiffness, loss of consciousness, and body
jerking.




A patient has been taking oral oxycodone every six hours for back pain during the
past three years. The patient suddenly decides to stop taking the pain medication
and is trying an alternative therapy without a clinician's approval.
Which risk is of clinical concern?
YES Physical dependence
Correct! The patient suddenly stopping the medication will cause physical
symptoms that can range from nausea to seizures.




An advanced practice registered nurse has diagnosed a 44-year-old male with
depression. A plan is developed to start treatment with medication. The patient has
a history of sexual dysfunction and is concerned about taking medication that may
worsen this condition.
Which antidepressant has the benefit of enhancing libido?
YES Bupropion


Correct! Bupropion does not cause sexual dysfunction. This will help the patient
with a history of sexual dysfunction. This will enhance the patient's libido, which
will help with both depression and sexual dysfunction.




A patient is wheezing and short of breath. The nurse assesses a heart rate of 88
beats per minute, a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure
of 124/78 mm Hg. The prescriber orders a nonspecific beta-agonist medication.

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