Ace Your Nurs6531 Final Exam 2026: 110
Q&A Study Guide with Visual Aids &
Explanations
Description:
Get fully prepared with the most up-to-date Nurs6531 Final Exam Guide for 2025/2026. This
comprehensive resource includes 110 expertly crafted questions, detailed explanations, visual
diagnosis examples, and current clinical guidelines—all designed to boost your confidence and
ensure exam success. Don’t just study harder; study smarter with trusted content tailored for
aspiring nurse practitioners.
Ace your exam—download your ultimate study companion today!
, Nurs6531 Final Exam 2026: Questions, Answers & Study Guide
1. Which of the following is a potential acquired cause of thrombophilia?
a) Homocysteinuria
b) Protein C deficiency
c) Factor V Leiden
d) Antiphospholipid antibodies
Answer: d) Antiphospholipid antibodies
Explanation: Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome (APS) is an acquired autoimmune disorder
that predisposes individuals to arterial and venous thrombosis. Homocysteinuria can be inherited
or acquired (e.g., from vitamin B12 or folate deficiency), but APS is purely acquired. Protein C
deficiency and Factor V Leiden are inherited conditions.
2. Phalen's test, 90° wrist flexion for 60 seconds, reproduces symptoms of:
a) Ulnar tunnel syndrome
b) Carpal tunnel syndrome
c) Tarsal tunnel syndrome
d) Myofascial pain syndrome
Answer: b) Carpal tunnel syndrome
Explanation: Phalen's maneuver (maximal wrist flexion) increases pressure within the carpal
tunnel, compressing the median nerve and reproducing symptoms of paresthesia and pain, which
is characteristic of carpal tunnel syndrome.
3. Which patient would benefit most from screening for type 2 diabetes?
a) A 30-year-old female with unintended weight loss.
b) A 25-year-old male with a family history of type 1 diabetes
c) An obese female with recurrent vaginitis
d) A 50-year-old hyperlipidemic male
Answer: c) An obese female with recurrent vaginitis
,Explanation: Recurrent candidal vaginitis is a common presenting symptom of uncontrolled
diabetes due to glucosuria. The patient also has a major risk factor (obesity). Current guidelines
from the American Diabetes Association (ADA) recommend screening for all adults aged 35 or
older and for any adult with overweight/obesity (BMI ≥25 kg/m² or ≥23 kg/m² in Asian
Americans) who has one or more additional risk factors (e.g., history of CVD, hypertension,
PCOS, physical inactivity).
4. A 72-year-old female patient reports a 6-month history of gradually progressive swollen and
painful distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints of one hand. She has no systemic symptoms but the
erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), antinuclear antibody (ANA), and rheumatoid factor (RF)
are all minimally elevated. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
b) Osteoarthritis (OA)
c) Lupus
d) Peripheral neuropathy
Answer: b) Osteoarthritis (OA)
Explanation: The presentation is classic for erosive osteoarthritis, which commonly affects
postmenopausal women and involves the DIP joints. The minimal elevation in inflammatory
markers can be seen in OA and is not specific. RA typically affects proximal joints (PIP, MCP)
symmetrically and has more significant elevation in inflammatory markers.
5. A 32-year-old male patient complains of urinary frequency and burning on urination for 3
days. Urinalysis reveals bacteriuria. He denies any past history of urinary tract infection. The
initial treatment should be:
a) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole for 3 days
b) Ciprofloxacin for 7-10 days
c) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole for 14 days
d) Ciprofloxacin for 3 days
Answer: a) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole for 3 days
, Explanation: For an uncomplicated UTI in a male, a short-course (3-day) antibiotic regimen is
often effective if the pathogen is susceptible. The choice of agent should be based on local
resistance patterns, but TMP-SMX or a fluoroquinolone are common first-line choices. Given
increasing fluoroquinolone resistance and side effect profiles, TMP-SMX is often preferred if
susceptibility is likely.
6. A thymectomy is usually recommended in the early treatment of which disease?
a) Parkinson's disease
b) Multiple sclerosis
c) Myasthenia gravis
d) Huntington's chorea
Answer: c) Myasthenia gravis
Explanation: Thymectomy is a standard treatment option for patients with myasthenia gravis,
particularly those who are acetylcholine receptor antibody-positive and under the age of 60, as it
can improve symptoms and induce remission.
7. The diagnosis of human papilloma virus (HPV) infection in males is usually made by:
a) Clinical appearance
b) Viral culture
c) Tzanck smear
d) KOH prep
Answer: a) Clinical appearance
Explanation: There is no routine, FDA-approved HPV test for men. Diagnosis is primarily
clinical, based on the visual identification of characteristic warts (condylomata acuminata).
Biopsy is reserved for atypical, recalcitrant, or pigmented lesions.
8. The most effective intervention(s) to prevent stroke is (are):
a) 81 mg of aspirin daily
b) Carotid endarterectomy for patients with high-grade carotid lesions
c) Routine screening for carotid artery stenosis with auscultation for bruits
d) Smoking cessation and treatment of hypertension
Q&A Study Guide with Visual Aids &
Explanations
Description:
Get fully prepared with the most up-to-date Nurs6531 Final Exam Guide for 2025/2026. This
comprehensive resource includes 110 expertly crafted questions, detailed explanations, visual
diagnosis examples, and current clinical guidelines—all designed to boost your confidence and
ensure exam success. Don’t just study harder; study smarter with trusted content tailored for
aspiring nurse practitioners.
Ace your exam—download your ultimate study companion today!
, Nurs6531 Final Exam 2026: Questions, Answers & Study Guide
1. Which of the following is a potential acquired cause of thrombophilia?
a) Homocysteinuria
b) Protein C deficiency
c) Factor V Leiden
d) Antiphospholipid antibodies
Answer: d) Antiphospholipid antibodies
Explanation: Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome (APS) is an acquired autoimmune disorder
that predisposes individuals to arterial and venous thrombosis. Homocysteinuria can be inherited
or acquired (e.g., from vitamin B12 or folate deficiency), but APS is purely acquired. Protein C
deficiency and Factor V Leiden are inherited conditions.
2. Phalen's test, 90° wrist flexion for 60 seconds, reproduces symptoms of:
a) Ulnar tunnel syndrome
b) Carpal tunnel syndrome
c) Tarsal tunnel syndrome
d) Myofascial pain syndrome
Answer: b) Carpal tunnel syndrome
Explanation: Phalen's maneuver (maximal wrist flexion) increases pressure within the carpal
tunnel, compressing the median nerve and reproducing symptoms of paresthesia and pain, which
is characteristic of carpal tunnel syndrome.
3. Which patient would benefit most from screening for type 2 diabetes?
a) A 30-year-old female with unintended weight loss.
b) A 25-year-old male with a family history of type 1 diabetes
c) An obese female with recurrent vaginitis
d) A 50-year-old hyperlipidemic male
Answer: c) An obese female with recurrent vaginitis
,Explanation: Recurrent candidal vaginitis is a common presenting symptom of uncontrolled
diabetes due to glucosuria. The patient also has a major risk factor (obesity). Current guidelines
from the American Diabetes Association (ADA) recommend screening for all adults aged 35 or
older and for any adult with overweight/obesity (BMI ≥25 kg/m² or ≥23 kg/m² in Asian
Americans) who has one or more additional risk factors (e.g., history of CVD, hypertension,
PCOS, physical inactivity).
4. A 72-year-old female patient reports a 6-month history of gradually progressive swollen and
painful distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints of one hand. She has no systemic symptoms but the
erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), antinuclear antibody (ANA), and rheumatoid factor (RF)
are all minimally elevated. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
b) Osteoarthritis (OA)
c) Lupus
d) Peripheral neuropathy
Answer: b) Osteoarthritis (OA)
Explanation: The presentation is classic for erosive osteoarthritis, which commonly affects
postmenopausal women and involves the DIP joints. The minimal elevation in inflammatory
markers can be seen in OA and is not specific. RA typically affects proximal joints (PIP, MCP)
symmetrically and has more significant elevation in inflammatory markers.
5. A 32-year-old male patient complains of urinary frequency and burning on urination for 3
days. Urinalysis reveals bacteriuria. He denies any past history of urinary tract infection. The
initial treatment should be:
a) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole for 3 days
b) Ciprofloxacin for 7-10 days
c) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole for 14 days
d) Ciprofloxacin for 3 days
Answer: a) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole for 3 days
, Explanation: For an uncomplicated UTI in a male, a short-course (3-day) antibiotic regimen is
often effective if the pathogen is susceptible. The choice of agent should be based on local
resistance patterns, but TMP-SMX or a fluoroquinolone are common first-line choices. Given
increasing fluoroquinolone resistance and side effect profiles, TMP-SMX is often preferred if
susceptibility is likely.
6. A thymectomy is usually recommended in the early treatment of which disease?
a) Parkinson's disease
b) Multiple sclerosis
c) Myasthenia gravis
d) Huntington's chorea
Answer: c) Myasthenia gravis
Explanation: Thymectomy is a standard treatment option for patients with myasthenia gravis,
particularly those who are acetylcholine receptor antibody-positive and under the age of 60, as it
can improve symptoms and induce remission.
7. The diagnosis of human papilloma virus (HPV) infection in males is usually made by:
a) Clinical appearance
b) Viral culture
c) Tzanck smear
d) KOH prep
Answer: a) Clinical appearance
Explanation: There is no routine, FDA-approved HPV test for men. Diagnosis is primarily
clinical, based on the visual identification of characteristic warts (condylomata acuminata).
Biopsy is reserved for atypical, recalcitrant, or pigmented lesions.
8. The most effective intervention(s) to prevent stroke is (are):
a) 81 mg of aspirin daily
b) Carotid endarterectomy for patients with high-grade carotid lesions
c) Routine screening for carotid artery stenosis with auscultation for bruits
d) Smoking cessation and treatment of hypertension
