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NSG-6430 / NR 509 Random Exam Questions and Answers | Latest Update 2025/2026 | Verified A+ Solution

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This document contains a collection of random exam questions with 100% verified correct answers for NSG-6430 / NR 509. Updated for the 2025/2026 academic year, it serves as a reliable exam solution and study aid. Graded A+, it is designed to guarantee success by covering essential nursing concepts and clinical knowledge in a clear Q&A format.

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NSG-6430 NR 509 RANDOM QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS 100% BEST EXAM SOLUTION
CORRECT/VERIFIED GUARANTEED SUCCESS
LATEST UPDATE 2025/2026 GRADED A+

 A patient with diarrhea is tested for C. difficile. How soon should the
enzyme immunoassay (EIA) yield results? About 24 hours
 A patient has a positive hepatitis B surface antibody. This means he: is
immune to hepatitis B.
 An 83-year-old patient is diagnosed with diverticulitis. Where isher pain
typically located? Left lower quadrant
 Many older adults have cachexia. What characterizes this? Illness andloss
of muscle mass
 GERD (gastroesophageal reflux disease) and physiologic reflux have
similar characteristics. However, physiologic reflux: rarely occurs at
nighttime.
 The three most common causes of bacterial diarrhea in the US are


 Mrs. Lovely, an 84-year-old, complains of fecal incontinence. A likely
cause is: constipation
 A 40-year-old patient has the following laboratory values. How shouldthey
be interpreted? HBsAg negative; anti-HBs positive; anti-HBc negative.
The patient has been immunized.
 A 63-year-old male has been your patient for several years. He isa former
smoker who takes simvastatin, ramipril, and an aspirin daily.His blood
pressure and lipids are well controlled. He presents to your clinic with

, complaints of fatigue and “just not feeling well” for the lastfew days. His
vital signs and exam are normal, but his liver enzymes are elevated. His
hepatitis panel is negative for infectious hepatitis. What is the most likely
cause of his elevated liver enzymes? Daily grapefruit consumption for
the past 10 days
 A 20­year­old female patient presents with tenderness at McBurney’s
point. Appendicitis is considered. What laboratory test should be done
initially to determine the etiology of this patient's abdominal pain? Serum
pregnancy test
 A patient has the following laboratory value. Anti-HAV IgG positive.

, What is the clinical interpretation? He has immunity to hepatitis A.
 The most common place for indirect inguinal hernias to develop is:the
internal inguinal ring.
 What is the simplest screen for nutritional adequacy in elderly patients?
Measure their weight
 A 31-year-old patient is suspected of having hepatitis C. He reports
possible exposure about a month ago. How should the nurse
practitioner interpret his laboratory results? Anti-HCV nonreactive;HCV
RNA not detectable. The patient does not have hepatitis C
 A fecal occult blood test (FOBT) obtained during a rectal examination:is
inadequate to screen for colorectal cancer.


 A 40-year-old patient has the following laboratory values. HbsAg
negative; Anti-HBc positive; anti-HBs positive. How should they be
interpreted? The patient had hepatitis.

 A 20-year-old female patient presents with tenderness at
McBurney’s point. What laboratory test supports a diagnosis of
appendicitis? CBC with elevated white count
 A patient has the following laboratory values. Anti-HAV IgM Negative;
AntiHAV IgG negative. What does this mean? He has no immunity to
hepatitis A

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